Thursday, November 25, 2021

Odisha CHSE Mathematics 2014 Question Paper with Answer

Odisha CHSE Mathematics 2014 Question Paper with Answer

Looking for Odisha CHSE Mathematics 2014 Question Paper with Answer ? You can download it in PDF format below.

Odisha CHSE Mathematics 2014

Model Question Paper SET : C

607 R / 607 E

(REGULAR / Ex-Regular)

Mathematics

Time : 3 Hours Total Marks : 100

Attachments:

Question Paper Download in PDF : Click here to download Odisha CHSE Mathematics 2014 Question Paper

Answer Download in PDF : Click here to download Odisha CHSE Mathematics 2014 Answer

Saturday, March 5, 2016

SSL CGL Arithmetic Aptitude Solved Model Question Paper

SSL CGL Arithmetic Aptitude Solved Model Question Paper
Are you looking for SSC CGL Model and Sample Question Papers? You can here collect sample question papers with answers for Arithmetic Aptitude. It will be very useful for upcoming examinations. Check out the all questions provided here and have a practice test here.

SSC CGL Arithmetic Aptitude Question Paper free Sample Model Question Paper with answer and solution

1. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 158.25 x 4.6 + 21% of 847+?= 950.93 50 45
* 35
* 40
* 25
* 53.25
* Answer: 45

2. The average of the first and the second of three numbers is 15 more than the average of the second and the third of these numbers. What is the difference between the first and the third of these three numbers?
* 15
* 45
* 60
* Data inadequate
* Answer: None of these

Difference is 30 – The difference between the simple and the compound interest compounded every six rnonths at the rate of 10 %.p.a. at the end of two years is Rs. 124.05. What is the sum?
* Rs 10,000
* Rs 6,000
* Rs 12,000
* Answer: Rs 8,000
* None of these

4. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 85.147 + 34.912 x 6.2 + ? = 802.293
* 400
* 450
* 550
* 600
* Answer: 500

5. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 9548+7314=8362+?
* 8230
* Answer: 8500
* 8410
* 8600
* None of these

6. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 248.251 ÷ 12.62 x 20.52 =?* Answer: 400
* 450
* 600
* 375
* 350

7. When a number is added to another number the total becomes 333.333 per cent of the second number. What is the ratio between the first and the second number?
* 3:7
* 7:4
* Answer: 7:3
* Data inadequate
* None of these

8. There are 11 members in a family out of which there are 4 males and remaining females. The family has hired three cars for a trip to zoo. The members are to be seated in the cars in such a way that there are not more than four members in one car and there is at least one male in each car. How many different ways can the members travel?
* 610
* 126
* 140
* 532
* Answer: None of these

9. 657 Ways 9:- The sum of four numbers is 64.If you add 3 to the first number, 3 is subtracted from second number, the third is multiplied by 3 and the sum is divided by 3, then all the results are equal. What is the difference between the largest and the smallest of the original numbers?
* Answer: 32
* 27
* 21
* Cannot be determined
* None of these

10. The Numbers are 9,15,4,36 10. In a recent Survey 40% homes contained two or more People. Of those houses containing only one person 25% were having only a male. What is the percentage of all houses which contain exactly one female and no males?
* 75
* 40
* 15
* Cannot be determined
* Answer: None of these

11. 45 percent 11. Sumitra has an average of 56% on her first 7 examinations. How much should she make on her eighth examination to obtain an average of 60% on 8 examinations?
* 88%
* 78%
* 98%
* Answer: Cannot be determined
* None of these

12. Since Total marks are not given So Can not be Determined 12. A classroom has equal number of boys and girls. Eight girls left to play Kho-kho, leaving twice as many boys as girls in the classroom. What was the total number of girls boys present initially? -
* Cannot be Determined
* 16
* 24
* Answer: 32
* None of these

13. 16 boys 16 Girls 13. An amount of money is to be distributed among P, Q and R in the ratio of 6:19:7 respectively. If R gives Rs. 200/- of his share to Q, the ratio among P, Q and R becomes 3:10:3 respectively .What was the total amount?
* Answer: Rs. 6,400/-
* Rs 12800/-
* Rs 3,200/-
* Data inadequate
* None of these

14. A man in his will distributed his money in such a way that half of it is for his wife, two-thirds of the remaining equally to three of his sons and the remaining amount equally to four of his daughters. If each of the daughters receives Rs. 20,000/-, how much money will each of his sons receive?
* Rs. 50,333.33
* Rs 48333.33
* Answer: Rs 53,333.33
* Data inadequate
* None of these

15. Arun thinks his weight is more than 65 kg but less than 72 . His brother does not agree with him and thinks Arun’s Weight is more than 60 kg but less than 70 kg. Arun ‘s Mother thinks Arun’s weight cannot be more than 68kg. If all of them are correct in their estimation, what is the average of the probable values of Arun’s weight?
* 69 kg
* Answer: 67 kg
* 68kg
* Data inadequate
* None of these

16. The length and the breadth of the floor of a room is 20 ft. and 10 ft respectively. Square tiles of 2 ft. dimension having three different colours are placed on the floor. The first row of tiles on all sides is of black colour, out of the remaining one-third is of white colour and the remaining are of blue colour. How many blue Coloured tiles are there?
* Answer: 16
* 32
* 48
* 24
* None of these

17. If the arithmetic mean of 6, 8, 10. x, 7 is 8.the value of x will be
* 7
* Answer: 9
* 10
* 8
* none of these

18. A train is moving with an uniform speed. It crosses a railway platform 120 metres long in 12 seconds and another platform 170 meires long in 16 seconds. The speed of the train per second is—
* Answer: 12.5 m/sec
* 10 m/sec
* 10.22 m/sec
* 14 m/sec
* None of these

19.The median of the data 30. 25, 27, 25-8, 29, 35,38. 28 is
* Answer: 28.5
* 29.5
* 28
* 29
* None of these

20. If the sum of the two radii of two circles is 7 cm and the difference of their circumference is 8 cm, the two circumferences will be—
* 34cm and 26cm
* 28cm and 20cm
* Answer: 26 cm and 18 cm
* 20cm and 12cm
* None of these

SSC CGL Tier II: Quantitative Ability 2015 Solved Question Paper

Are you looking SSC CGL Old Question Papers ? You can here download solved question paper 2015 of SSC CGL Tier II, Quantitative Ability. Check out details below.

Detailed Solutions of SSC CGL (Tier - II) Exam 2015 held on 25-10-2015- Quantitative Ability

Exam Board: SSC
Exam Name: SSC CGL (Tier - II)
Year: 2015
Subject: Quantitative Ability
Exam Date: 25-10-2015
Booklet No: For All Booklets













Monday, February 29, 2016

RRB AJMER ASM Solved Question Paper 2009

RRB AJMER ASM Solved Question Paper 2009
Exam Board : RRB
Question Paper Year : 2009

RRB AJMER ASM SOLVED PAPER 2009

1. The Buland Darwaja is related to

(1) Shershah

(2) Babur

(3) Akbar

(4) Jehangir

Ans. (3)

2. The Military Games were held in Hyderabad from October 17, 2007 to October 27, 2007.Which

country won the highest number of medals?

(1) China

(2) Russia

(3) India

(4) Japan

Ans. (2)

3. The Railways gets the maximum income from

(1) Goods freight

(2) Passenger’s fares

(3) Advertisement

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

4. What is sound?

(1) Energy

(2) Heat

(3) Magnet

(4) Ray

Ans. (1)

5. The chief source of heat energy is

(1) Sun light

(2) Biogas

(3) Electricity

(4) Natural gas

Ans. (1)

6. The Aravalli hills are located in

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Assam

(4) Jharkhand

Ans. (2)

7. A plant can be disease resistant due to

(1) Pesticides

(2) Virus

(3) Fungi

(4) Bacteria

Ans. (1)

8. Which of the following Chief Ministers served for the longest tenure?

(1) Lalu Prasad

(2) Jyoti Basu

(3) Ms. Mayawati

(4) M. Karunanidhi

Ans. (2)

9. Which of the following straits separates Europe from Africa?

(1) Berring

(2) Dobar

(3) Gibralter

(4) Mulucca

Ans. (3)

10. The UN Climate Change conference was organized in Bali from December 3, 2007 to December 14,

2007 for 12 days in which 1000 people participated .Bali is situated in

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Morocco

(4) China

Ans. (1)

11. The description of caste system is found in

(1) Rig Veda

(2) Sam Veda

(3) Yajurva Veda

(4) Atharva Veda

Ans. (1)

12. Who is called the Akbar of Kashmir?

(1) Janulabeddin

(2) Sikandar

(3) Queen Didda

(4) Emperor Sangram Singh

Ans. (1)

13. The Border Road Organization comes under

(1) Defense

(2) Urban Development

(3) Corporate sector

(4) Private sector

Ans. (1)

14. Which of the following corporations was started first by the Government of India?

(1) Damodar Valley Corporation

(2) National Thermal Power Corporation

(3) National Hydel Power Corporation

(4) All the above

Ans. (1)

15. Which of the following is not a part of three gems of the Buddhism?

(1) Buddha

(2) Sangha

(3) Dhamma

(4) Ahimsa

Ans. (4)

16. Who was the first Indian to reach Antarctica?

(1) Rakesh Sharma

(2) G.S. Sirohi

(3) B.K. Dutta

(4) K. Karuna Nautial

Ans. (2)

17. A saturated solution at S.T.P. is

(1) Colorless

(2) Green

(3) Red

(4) Red and green

Ans. (1)

18. The pure element in the following is

(1) Glass

(2) Diamond

(3) Lime

(4) Salt

Ans. (2)

19. What is gypsum?

(1) Lime

(2) Bleaching powder

(3) Blue vitriol

(4) Ammonium chloride powder

Ans. (3)

20. Bones of horses of Harappan civilization were found at

(1) Lothal

(2) Harappa

(3) Surkotada

(4) Mohanjodero

Ans. (3)

21. What is Ag-mark?

(1) Technique to increase agricultural productivity

(2) Green Revolution

(3) Test of purity in the production of vegetable oil etc.

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

22. Who has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket?

(11) Muttiah Muralitharan

(2) Shane Warne

(3) Anil Kumble

(4) Shoaib Akhtar

Ans. (1)

23. In 1947, 532 princely states were annexed to India except three. Which of the following was not

among the three princely states?

(1) Junagarha

(2) Bhavnagar

(3) Hyderabad

(4) Kashmir

Ans. (4)

24. Which of the following gases is used to prepare Ammonia gas?

(1) Nitrogen and oxygen

(2) Nitrogen and oxide

(3) Nitrogen and hydrogen

(4) Nitrogen and carbon

Ans. (3)

25. In which of the following states of India, per capita income is highest?

(1) Orissa

(2) Assam

(3) Manipur

(4) Kerala

Ans. (4)

26. By import of — the inflation has been caused in India?

(1) Wheat

(2) Rice

(3) Sugar

(4) Petroleum

Ans. (4)

27. The meeting of Commonwealth Nations was held in Uganda on November 25, 2007. Who was

elected its General Secretary?

(1) Mahesh Sharma

(2) Kamlesh Sharma

(3) Bimalesh Sharma

(4) Kailash Sharma

Ans. (2)

28. In which country the Hindu temples were razed to the ground in

December, 2007?

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Mauritius

(4) Afghanistan

Ans. (2)

Directions (29 — 33) : Read the following passage carefully and then answer the following questions on

the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage by choosing the best answer to each question out of

given four options.

On hearing the news of the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh, Udham Singh did not attend his school but

took a train to Armritsar and visited the spot. There, he stood for several minutes in a trance, picked up

the soil, rubbed it on his forehead and put some in a phial. He fasted that night. According to his family

members he placed fresh flowers on the holy dust every morning, drawing inspiration from it. One early

morning he went to the river Ravi and pledged that he would Colour its waters with the colour of his

blood, to create what he called the freedom’s flood. With this aim in view in 1921, he first landed in

Africa. From there he went to America to meet the Indian revolutionaries working for the liberation of

the motherland.

In 1923, he landed in England. In 1928, he returned to India in response to an urgent call from Bhagat

Singh. When he reached Lahore, he was detained for violation of the Arms Act. He was released after

four years rigorous imprisonment. In 1935, he escaped to Germany by giving a slip to the police. From

Berlin, he reached Paris and purchased a revolver. He kept it ready for action and managed to reach

London again. Opportunity came on March 13, 1940 when Sir Michael O’ Dwyer was to speak at a

seminar in the Caxton Hall. As Sir Michael turned to resume his seat after the speech. Udham Singh

pulled out his revolver and fired at him, Sir Michael died without a shriek. Udham

Singh was arrested and produced before the court on April 2, 1940. The court passed death sentence on

him and he was hanged at Pentonville Prison, London on July 3, 1940.

29. Udham Singh went to America where he

(1) mobilized the Indian citizens for the liberation of the motherland

(2) collected sufficient funds to fight colonialism

(3) met fellow citizens working for the same cause

(4) went sight-seeing

Ans. (3)

30. Where did Udham Singh buy the weapon which was used for killing Sir Michael?

(1) Paris

(2) Lahore

(3) London

(4) Berlin

Ans. (1)

31. Udham Singh shot at Sir Michael O’Dwyer in

(1) Jallianwala Bagh

(2) Armritsar

(3) London

(4) Paris

Ans. (3)

32. When Udham Singh was arrest ed in Lahore, he was charged for

(1) instigating his countrymen against the Englishmen

(2) his links with anti-British forces

(3) concealing his identity and carrying on underground activities

(4) possessing unlicensed arms and ammunition

Ans. (4)

33. Udham Singh returned to India in 1928 mainly because he was:

(1) short of funds to meet his expenses

(2) to produce some arms from Lahore

(3) to escape from the British police

(4) called by a revolutionary in India

Ans. (4)

34. In the following question a word has been spelt in four different ways one of which is correct.

Choose the correctly spelt word:

(1) Assemblage

(2) Asemblage

(3) Assemmblage

(4) Accemblage

Ans. (1)

35. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives

The documents are available ? inspection.

(1) of

(2) about

(3) with

(4) for

Ans. (4)

36. In the following question, choose the Adjective.

(1) Preference

(2) Gifted

(3) Genius

(4) In vain

Ans. (2)

37. Write the synonym of the word ‘Consummate’.

(1) Novice

(2) Ambiguous

(3) Perfect

(4) Imperfect

Ans. (3)

38. Find out, which part of the following sentence has a grammatical or idiomatic error in it.

They have

(1)/held the championship

(2)/ since the past

(3)/ two years.

(4)

Ans. (3)

39. In the following question, a word has been spelt in four different ways, one of which is correct.

Choose the correctly spelt word.

(1) demmurage

(2) demurrage

(3) demarrage

(4) demurage

Ans. (2)

40. In the following question, an idiomatic expression and its four possible meanings are given. Find out

the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and choose your correct answer from the given four

choices:

Play one’s cards well

(1) A good gambler displaying skills

(2) A magician showing magic of cards

(3) Use means effectively

(4) A game of gamble

Ans. (3)

41. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one that can he substituted for .the given words/ phrase and

mark it as your answer.

A cock and bull story

(1) An unbelievable gossip

(2) A children’s fable

(3) A quarrelsome dialogue

(4) A competition between un equal people

Ans. (1)

42. Choose the part of the following sentence containing error and mark it as your answer:

The number of orders(1). /

for that item have(2). /

increased greatly; several of them(3). /

have come from Egypt(4).

Ans. (2)

43. Identify the part of the following sentence containing an error and choose it as your answer.

In America(1)/

Presidential elections(2) /

is held every four years(3)

No error(4)

Ans. (3)

44. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives:

‘Ram has annoyed his boss. He ? have to leave the job.

(1) might

(2) will

(3) ought to

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

45. In the following question, three words having different meanings of a certain word are given. Select

that word from the answer choices marked (1), (2), (3) and (4).

Witness, Observer; Onlooker

(1) spectator

(2) present

(3) biased

(4) careful

Ans. (1)

46. For the following word written in capital letters, four words are listed below as (1),

(2) (3) and (4). Out of these, choose the word nearest in meaning to it as your answer:

VINDICATE

(1) approve

(2) justify

(3) express

(4) exonerate

Ans. (2)

47. In the following sentence, the bold part contains an error. Answer choice (1) repeats the original,

other three are 1ifferent. If you think that the original sentence displays the best way of wording the

bold part, choose your answer (1): otherwise select the best alternative from the other three choices.

“Parents and teachers are be coming increasingly concerned about protecting children and the drugs

which are available to them, and several parent teacher organizations, dedicated to educating children

about the dangers of drug addiction, have recently been formed.”

(1) protecting children and the drugs which are available to them

(2) protecting of children and the drugs which are available to them

(3) protecting children from the drugs available to them

(4) protecting children from the drugs availability to them

Ans. (3)

48. From the given four answer choices, select the answer that gives the clearest, most exact sentence,

but do not change the meaning Of the bold part of original sentence.

Such people never have and never will be trusted.

(1) never have and never will be trusted

(2) never have and will be trust ed

(3) never have been trusted and never will be trusted

(4) never have and anyone trust them and never will have anyone

Ans. (3)

49. Which one of the following statements is untrue?

(1) The sea-floor is older than the land

(2) The first rocks were formed as a result of the cooling o. molten matter

(3) Sedimentary rocks are also called aqueous rocks because they were formed by

the agency of water

(4) Stalactites and stalagmites are deposits of lime found in caves

Ans. (3)

50. The main hydro electric power potential of the Indus river system lies in India and not in Pakistan

because:

(1) the need for hydro-electric power is greater in India than in Pakistan

(2) India has superior technology to develop hydro—electric power

(3) India has a greater labour force to develop hydro electric power

(4) The mountain stages of these rivers lie in India

Ans. (4)

51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I List-II

(a) Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh

(b) Gram 2.Gujarat

(c) Black Pepper 3. West Bengal

(d) Pine apple 4. Kerala

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 1 3 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (1)

52. In the production of tidal energy the maximum potential exists at:

(1) Bhavnagar

(2) Digboi

(3) Cochin

(4) Ladakh

Ans. (1)

53. The National Highway system is the responsibility of

(1) State governments

(2) Central governments

(3) Central and State governments

(4) Local body governments

Ans. (3)

54. Supersonic jets cause pollution by thinning of

(1) Sulphur dioxide layer

(2) Carbon dioxide layer

(3) Ozone layer

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

55. Which one of the following is commonly called Edible sponge mushroom’?

(1) Sargassum

(2) Morchella

(3) Agaricus

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

56. Which of the following is not an essential function of the skin in the human body?

(1) protects the internal or of the body

(2) acts as a sensory organ

(3) regulates the temperature of the body

(4) gives shape to the body

Ans. (4)

57. The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called

(1) Inverter

(2) Rectifier

(3) Transmitter

(4) Transformer

Ans. (2)

58. Water is used in hot water bottles because:

(1) it is easily obtained in pure form

(2) it has high specific heat

(3) it is cheaper and not harmful

(4) it is easy to heat water

Ans. (2)

59. Mention the ray which appears to originate outside the earth.

(1) cosmic ray

(2) the ultra-violet ray

(3) the alpha ray

(4) the beta ray

Ans. (1)

60. A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than 75 cms from his eyes. What disease is he

suffering from?

(1) Astigmatism

(2) Colour-blindness

(3) Myopia

(4) Hypermetropia

Ans. (4)

61. Oil rises up to wick in a lamp because

(1) oil is volatile

(2) oil is very light

(3) of the surface tension phenomenon

(4) of the diffusion of oil through the wick

Ans. (3)

62. Following Railway Training Institutes have been indicated with the cities where they are located.

Find out which is wrongly matched.

(1) Railway Staff College — Vadodara

(2) Indian Railway Institute of Civil Engineering — Pune

(3) Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering —Jamalpur

(4) Indian Railway Institute Signal and Tele Communication Engineering — Mumbai

Ans. (4)

63. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given four options:

List -I List-II

(Zonal Railway) (Head Quarter)

(a) North Central Railway 1. Bilaspur

(b) South-East Central Railway 2. Allahabad

(c) West Central Railway 3. Jabalpur

(d) East Coast Railway 4. Bhubaneshwar

Code.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 3 4

(2) 1 2 3 4

(3) 2 3 4 1

(4) 4 1 3 2

Ans. (1)

64. In Indian Railways Network, approximately how many passenger service vehicles (passenger

coaches) are working?

(1) 44,100

(2) 33.000

(3) 49,000

(4) 54,000

Ans. (2)

65. Who is the principal head of the Department of a Station Master in Zonal Railway Head Quarter

Office?

(1) Chief Commercial Manager

(2) Chief Safety Officer

(3) Chief Personnel Officer

(4) Chief Operations Manager

Ans. (4)

66. Two new zones named North Western Railway and East Central Railway become functional/

operational from?

(1) October 1, 2002

(2) April 1, 2002

(3) April 1, 2003

(4) October 1, 2003

Ans. (1)

67. In one of the following State, though the Konkan Railway line does not pass through it, yet it has

capital share in the K.R. Corporation. Name the State.

(1) Karnataka

(2) Goa

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) Kerala

Ans. (3)

68. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice- President of India are decided by the

(1) High Court of a State

(2) Chief Election Commissioner

(3) Supreme Court of India

(4) President of India

Ans. (3)

69. Consider the following functionaries

1. Union Cabinet Secretary

2. Chief Election Commissioner

3. Union Cabinet Ministers

4. Chief Justice of India

Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence is

(1) 3, 4, 2, 1

(2) 4, 3, 1, 2

(3) 4, 3, 2, 1

(4) 3. 4, 1, 2

Ans. (3)

70. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that

(1) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated

(2) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away

(3) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article

368

(4) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended

Ans. (1)

71. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?

1. Finance Commission

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Council

4. National Development Council

5. Election Commission

6. University Grants Commission

(1) 1, 3 and 5

(2) l and 5

(3) 1, 2, 5 and 6

(4) 1, 3, 5 and 6

Ans. (2)

72. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor

General vests with

(1) President of India

(2) Supreme Court of India

(3) Parliament of India

(4) National Development Council

Ans. (1)

73. Mohit said to Neelam, “Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.” How is Neelam related to the

wife of Mohit?

(1) aunt

(2) mother-in-law

(3) sister

(4) cannot be determined

Ans. (1)

74. A tourist drives 10 km towards East and turns to right hand side and takes a drive of another 3 km.

He then drives towards West (turning to his right) another 3 km. He then turns to his left and walks

another 2 km. Afterwards, he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting point

and in which direction?

(1) 10 km—East

(2) 9 km— North

(3) 8 km— West

(4) 5 km—South

Ans. (4)

75. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide the ‘Strong’ and ‘Weak’

arguments and give answer out of four given options ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’ and ‘4’

Question:

Should all the professional colleges in India be encouraged to run their own courses without affiliation

to any university?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities for those who seek professional training.

(II) No, this will dilute the quality of professional training as all such colleges may not be equipped to

conduct such courses.

(1) Only argument I is strong

(2) Only argument II is strong

(3) Both I and II are strong

(4) Neither I nor II is strong

Ans. (2)

76. Statement: “Please do not wait for me; I may be late, start taking lunch as soon as the guests arrive.”

— a message from a director of a company to his office managers.-

Assumptions:

I. Keeping guests waiting is not desirable.

II. Lunch may not be ready in time.

Consider the above statement and two assumptions to decide as to which of the assumptions is implicit

in the statement. Choose the correct answer from the given options 1, 2, 3 and 4.

(1) Only assumption I is implicit

(2) Only assumption II is implicit

(3) Both I and II are implicit

(4) Neither I nor II is implicit

Ans. (1)

77. How many Asian countries are there in Common wealth?

(1) 49

(2) 51

(3) 54

(4) 57

Ans. (3)

78. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan’s which action; performed in favour of Indian independence, but was

against the English men?

(1) Formation of Lal-Kurti sena

(2) Assassination of an Englishman

(3) Trade of red shirts

(4) Demand for Pakhtunistan

Ans. (1)

79. On selling an article for Rs. 270 there is a gain of 12.5%. What

is its cost price?

(1) Rs. 240

(2) Rs. 220

(3) Rs. 210

(4) Rs. 250

Ans. (1)

80. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1: 2: 3. The greatest angle will be

(1) 60°

(2) 30°

(3) 90°

(4) 75°

Ans. (3)

81. The compound interest on Rs. 2500 at the rate of 6% p.a. after 2 years will be

(1) Rs. 309

(2) Rs. 318

(3) Rs. 320

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

82. (999)2 – (998)22=?

(1) 1995

(2) 1998

(3) 1997

(4) 1992

Ans. (3)

83. A man covers a distance of 6 km at the rate 4 kmph and other 4 km at 3 kmph. His average speed is

(1) 9&13/7 kmph

(2) 3&9/17 kmph

(3) 5&9/17 kmph

(4) 3 & 5/9 kmph

Ans. (2)

84. The cost price of an article is Rs. 7840. To gain 7%, the article should be sold at

(1) Rs. 8388.80

(2) Rs. 8000

(3) Rs. 8383.80

(4) Rs. 8833.80

Ans. (1)

85. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 30 minutes respectively and a third pipe can empty the

full tank in 20 minutes. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, the tank will be

(1) 10 minutes

(2) 8 minutes

(3) 7 minutes

(4) None of these

Ans. (4)

86.(4*4*4+3*3*3)/13 =

(1) 7

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

Ans. (1)

87. (6.25) 4÷ (6.25)3 =?

(1) 6.25

(2) 6.025

(3) 6.0025

(4) 6.002

Ans. (1)

88. The ratio between the ages of Ram and Mohan is 4:5 and that between Mohan and Anil is 5:6. If sum

of the ages of three be 90 years, how old is Mohan?

(1) 24 years

(2) 20 years

(3) 30 years

(4) 25 years

Ans. (3)

89. The per cent of 2 /45 is?

(1) 3&4/9 %

(2) 4&4/9 %

(3) 4 %

(4) 9 %

Ans. (2)

90. If a x=b;b y=c and cz =a , then xyz =?

(1) 1

(2) -1

(3) 2

(4) 2

Ans. (1)

91. Match the name of countries in List-I with years of beginning of railways in List-II and select the

correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List -I List—II

(Countries) (Year of beginning of railways)

(a) Britain 1. 1853

(b) America 2. 1829

(c) India 3. 1825

(d) France 4. 1830

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 4 1 3 2

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (3)

92. The length of Indian rails is

(1) More than 5000 km

(2) More than 5630 km

(3) More than 6000 km

(4) More than 6531 km

Ans. (4)

93. Match the items of List-I with List-II and select the-correct answer by using the codes given below

the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Largest Population) (States)

(a) Jains 1. Nagaland

(b) Buddhas 2. Rajasthan

(c) Christians 3. Maharashtra

(d) Muslims 4. Lakshadwip

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (2)

94. The capital of the king of Punjab Ranjit Singh was

(1) Lahore

(2) Ludhiana

(3) Mathura

(4) Sri Nagar

Ans. (1)

95. Photosynthesis does not take place in

(1) plants

(2) fungi

(3) bacteria

(4) virus

Ans. (4)

96. In nucleuic protein, Uceriotic chromosomes are alike in

(1) prophase

(2) Metaphase

(3) Anaphase -

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

97. Which type of protein is found in virus?

(1) Lyco protein

(2) Secondary protein

(3) Primary protein

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

98. In ionic solid, the velocity of electricity is

(1) fast

(2) weak

(3) less than solid

(4) less than gas

Ans. (1)

99. The largest phase in cell division is

(1) Liptotin

(2) Zagotin

(3) Pacotin

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

Wednesday, February 24, 2016

SPPU Engineering Drawing Solved Question Paper of Nov Dec 2008

SPPU Engineering Drawing Solved Question Paper of Nov Dec 2008
Looking for solved question paper of SPPU Engineering Drawing? You can here find a sample from 2008 exam. Get the complete solution to this question paper in PDF format below.

F. Y. B.Tech. (E) X—1050—2008
MAHARASHTRA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
F. Y. B.Tech. (E) EXAMINATION
ENGINEERING DRAWING
(NOV/DEC 2008-09)
Time--Four Hours Maximum Marks--80
“Please check whether you have got the right question paper”
N. B. :-(i) Question Numbers 1 and 6 are compulsory.
(ii) Solve two questions each from remaining questions of Section A and Section B.
(iii) Assume suitable additional data if necessary, and mention it clearly.

Section A
Q.1. The projections of the ends of a line AB are on the same projector. The end A is 30 mm below H.P. and 15 mm behind V.P. The end B is 35 mm above H.P. and 40 mm in front of V.P. Determine its true length, the traces and the inclinations with the reference planes. (14)
Column width = 6 row height = 35.25

Q.2. A regular Hexagon ABCDEF of 30 mm side is the front view of a plate when its surface is inclined at 300 to the V.P. Draw the projections when its side AB is in V.P. and inclined at 450 to the H.P. (13)

Q.3. A pentagonal pyramid, side of base 25 mm and height 60 mm has one of its slant (triangular) faces on the H.P. and the edge of base contained by that slant edge makes an angle 30 degree to the V.P. Draw its projections. (13)

Q.4. Three spheres of 40 mm diameter are placed on ground touching each other, with line joining centers of any two parallel to V.P. A fourth sphere of diameter 50 mm is placed centrally over these spheres, determine the height of centre of the....

Download Link in PDF: Click me to get SPPU Engineering Drawing Solved Question Paper of Nov Dec 2008

Saturday, January 23, 2016

GSRTC Syllabus 2016 PDF, Exam Pattern and Solved Previous Question Papers

GSRTC Syllabus 2016 PDF, Exam Pattern and Solved Previous Question Papers
Are you looking for GSRTC Syllabus 2016 PDF along with exam pattern, previous paper, exam date, study material, model question paper ? You can download them available at www.ojas.gujarat.gov.in

GSRTC Clerk Exam Syllabus 2016

Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation has updated exam syllabus for recruiting 616 vacancies of Clerk, Junior Assistant, Traffic Controller, Accountant etc posts. For this recruitment online application form is to be filled, which is available at its official website at www.ojas.gujarat.gov.in. An hence those aspirants who are eligible and interested to apply for these posts, can get exam syllabus and pattern.

About GSRTC 

Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation GSRTC came into existence in 1960 on formation of Gujarat. It is a passenger transport and it is providing bus services within Gujarat and neighbor states. To manage workload in various depots it needs employees. Therefore GSRTC has released the recruitment notification.

GSRTC Clerk Bharti 2016 Notification

GSRTC has released one of latest recruitment notification with total number of 616 vacancies in various posts.

GSRTC, Name of the posts, Syllabus 2016 PDF File Download Details:


Number of Vacancies: 616 Posts
Name of Posts: Various Posts
Category Wise Posts Details:
Clerk: 335 Posts
Traffic Controller: 70 Posts
Traffic Inspector: 40 Posts
Junior Assistant: 70 Posts
Junior Accountant: 15 Posts
Assistant Traffic Inspector: 25 Posts
Assistant Superintendent of Traffic: 01 Posts
Assistant Security Supervisor: 12 Posts
Sectional safety Inspector: 03 Posts
Security Assistant: 05 Posts
Senior Accountant/ Inspector of Accounts: 06 Posts
Senior Assistant: 05 Posts
Steno – B (Gujarati): 05 Posts
Stores Supervisor: 09 Posts
Store Keeper: 15 Posts
Kind of Declaration: Exam Syllabus/Pattern
Type of Exam: Written Test
Admit Card Status: 10 days before the exam

GSRTC Clerk Exam Pattern 2016:

Written exam question paper will be of multi choice question paper. Maximum Mars is 100 marks.
Time duration is 2 hours for this exam.
Sr. No Subject Marks
1. General studies 40
2. Gujarati 10
3. Reasoning 20
4. Quant 10
5. English 10
Total 100

GSRTC Bharti Syllabus 2016:

(A) General Studies:
Commerce, Trade & Population.
Ecology and Urbanization.
Agriculture, Education, Living & Social Traditions, Industry & Trade, Culture, etc.
Indian Polity.
Economy & Culture.
World Geography.
Geography & Natural Resources of India.
Current National & International Important Events.
Indian National Movement.
Indian Agriculture.
General Science.
History of India.
(B) Quantitative:


Simplification.
Percentages.
Problems on Ages.
HCF & LCM.
Time and Distance.
Simple & Compound Interest.
Data Interpretation.
Profit and Loss.
Time and Work.
Mixtures & Allegations.
Number System.
Decimal & Fractions.
Ratio and Proportions.
Average
(C) Reasoning:
Analogy.
Decision Making.
Cubes and Dice.
Mirror Images.
Embedded Figures etc.
Coding-Decoding.
Non-Verbal Series.
Alphabet Series.
Number Ranking.
Arithmetical Reasoning.
Clocks & Calendars.
Blood Relations.
Number Series.
Directions.

Download GSRTC Syllabus 2016 and Question Paper at official Site: www.ojas.gujarat.gov.in

Note: You can have here the all latest information regarding GSRTC Syllabus 2016 along with exam pattern, study material, old question paper, previous paper, admit card, call letter etc provided here. You are suggested to make our page saved by usung Ctrl+D for future reference.

Friday, November 14, 2014

CE 2301 Irrigation Engineering Anna University B.E Civil Engineering Nov Dec 2010 Solved Question Paper

Looking for Irrigation Engineering Question Papers with Answers? We have uploaded here a 2010 old question paper of CE 2301 with complete answers including 02 marks and 16 marks. You can also download the image file of all questions with answers in CE 2301 Irrigation Engineering. The Text and corresponding images are provided hereunder. Go through the post and get benefited from this blog. We pray for you to get good score in this CE 2301 Irrigation Engineering Subject. If you still have any doubt in this subject, don't hesitate to ask questions using the comment box provided at the end of this post. Do share CE 2301 Irrigation Engineering Question Paper with your needy friends. Inform them to search more question papers with the keyword 'indianuniversityquestionpapers' included in their search. Keep visiting!

QUESTION PAPER CODE 53076
B.E/ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATION’
NOVEMBER / DECEMBER 2010
FIFTH SEMESTER
CIVIL ENGINEERING
CE 2301 - IRRIGATION ENGINEERING
(REGULATION 2008)
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 marks

PART A (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)
1. What is meant by flow-duty and quantity duty
2. How do you classify irrigation projects?
3. What are the various methods of irrigation?
4. Explain why sprinkler irrigation preferred to other methods of irrigation.
5. What are different types of dams based on the function served?
6. What is spillway?
7. Differentiate alluvial soil from non alluvial soil.
8: Mention the various types of cross drainage works used-in canal systems.
9. What is meant by conjunctive use of water?
10. Explain user participation.

PART B (5 x l6 = 80 marks)
11.a) Define irrigation. What is the necessity for irrigation and what are the advantages of direct and indirect benefits of irrigation?
OR
11. b) What is meant by duty and delta of canal water? Derive a relationship between duty and delta for a given base period, Derive briefly the factor affecting duty

12. a) Describe comparatively various methods of applying water to the land in general? Describe in detail sprinkler irrigation method and enumerate its advantages.


12. b) Define and explain the following terms’

13. a) What are the different types of weirs? Discuss their salient features and give Mame advahtages and disadvantages of weir and barrage
OR
13. b. Definition of gravity dam and enumerate the various forces acting on a gravity dam. What are the essential requirements of a spillway and its ‘factors affecting the required spillway capacity?

14. a. What are different ways in which the irrigation canals can be aligned? What is meant by canal drops and enumerate the various the various types of canal drops which have been used since olden
days?
OR
14. b. Write short notes on the following:

l5. a What is meant by irrigation water management and what are the objectives of water management? Discuss in detail for the various components of water management.
OR
15. b). Explain soil management. What are the various types of water losses which occur in an irrigation canal? Discuss in detail for water management in farms


Answers for CE 2301 Irrigation Engineering 2010 Question Paper

QUESTION PAPER CODE: 53076
RE/ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER / DECEMBER 2010
FIFTH SEMESTER
CIVIL ENGINEERING I
CE 2301- IRRIGATION ENGINEERING
(REGULATION 2008)
Time: Three Hours  Maximum: 100 marks
PART A(10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

1. What is meant by flow duty and quantity duty?
A Flow Duty is defined as the area irrigated by a unit discharge of water flowing Continuously for the duration of the base period of a crop. Quantity Duty: it represents the irrigating capacity of a unit of water. It is the relation between the area of a crop irrigated and the quantity of irrigation water required during the entire period of the growth of that crop.


2. How do you classify irrigation projects?
Agricultural establishments capable of applying controlled amounts of water to lands to produce crops are termed irrigation projects. These projects mainly consist of engineering (or hydraulic) structures which collect, Convey, and deliver water to areas on which. crops are grown. Irrigation projects, may range from a small farm unit to those serving extensive areas of millions of hectares. A small irrigation project may consist of a low diversion weir or an inexpensive pumping plant along
with small ditches (channels) and, some minor control Structures. A large irrigation project includes a'large storage reservoir, a huge dam, hundreds of kilometers of canals, branches and distributaries, control structures, and other works. Assuming all other factors (such as enlightened and experienced farmers, availability of good seeds, etc)” reasonably favorable, the following can be listed as conditions essential for the success of any irrigation project.


3. What are all the methods of Irrigation?
I . Irrigation methods
- Surface irrigation 
- Sub Surface irrigation
- Sprinkler irrigation 
- Flooding irrigation 
- Furrow method
- Counter farming
- Wild flooding
- Controlled flooding
- Free flooding
- Counter 
- Border strips 
- Checks
- Basin
- Zigzag

4. Explain why sprinkler irrigation is preferred to other methods of irrigation.
i. The land cannot be prepared for surface methods.
ii. Slopes are excessive
iii. Topography is irregular.
iv. Soil is erosive
v. 7 Soil is excessively permeable or impermeable.

5. What are different types of dams based on the function served?
(a) Storage dam
(b) Detention dam
(c) Diversion dam
(d) Multipurpose dam

6. What is spillway?
Spillway can be constructed either as part of the main dam, such as in overflow section of a concrete dam or as a separate structure altogether. Besides being capable-of releasing surplus, water, a spillway must be able to meet hydraulic and structural requirements and must be located such that spillway discharges do not damage the toe of the dam.

7. Differentiate alluvial soil from non alluvial soil.
Alluvial soils: Sediment material deposited in bodies of water, deltas, and along the banks of the overflowing streams forms alluvial soils.
Non alluvial soil: Moutaineous regions may go on disintegrating over a period of time,resulting in the, formation of a rocky plain area called non alluvial soil


8. Mention the various types of cross drainage works used in canal systems 
i. Structures for a Carrier Channel Over Natural Stream
ii. Structures for a Carrier Channel Underneath a Natural Stream.
iii-Structures for Carrier Channel Crossing a Natural Stream at the Same Level 

9. What is meant by conjunctive use of water?
The combined use of surface and subsurface water resources of a given area. in a judicious manner to derive maximum benefits is called conjunctive use of water.

10. Explain user participation.
The farmer (user) forms the target group for all irrigation management and, hence, is a good source of first hand information right from the investigation to the operational stage of any irrigation system. It is, therefore, recognized that the participation of the farmer in all stages of the irrigation system would be very beneficial.

PART B - (5 x 16 = 80 marks)
11. (a) Define irrigation. What is the necessity'for irrigation and what are the advantages of direct and indirect benefits of irrigation?
Ans: Refer Q.No.11 (a) - May/June 2012 [This contents will be inlcuded later. Check back after some times]

11. (b) What is meant by duty and delta of canal water? Derive a relationship between duty and delta for a given base period. Derive briefly the factor/affecting duty.
Duty represents the irrigating Capacity of a unit of water. It is the relation between the area of a crop irrigated and the quantity of irrigation water required during the entire period of the growth of that crop.
Factors affecting duty:
1. Methods and Systems of irrigation: In the perennial irrigation system, soil is continually kept moist, and hence water required for initial saturation is less. Also, due to shallow depth of the water tube, deep percolation losses are less. In the inundation irrigation, there is wasteful use of water. Hence, the perennial irrigation system has a more duty than the inundation irrigation. The flow irrigation system has lower duty due to the conveyance losses in the network of the canals, While the lift irrigation system has higher duty because the commanded area of each well is very near to it. Tank irrigation has high duty due to rigid control.


2. Mode of applying Water: The flood irrigation system has lesser duty than the furrow system. Sub-irrigation system gives still higher duty. The basin irrigation and uncontrolled ‘flooding‘ give less duty.
3, Method of ‘cultivation: If the land is properly ploughed and made quite loose before irrigating, the soil will have high water retention capacity in its unsaturated zone. Thus the number of watering can be reduced, increasing the duty.
4. Time and frequency of tilling: Frequency of cultivation reduces the loss of moisture through weeds. When the soil is in good tilth, evaporation losses from the surface of soil is less, soil becomes properly aerated, and hence the yield of crop is also better.
5. Type of crop: Duty varies from crop to crop.

Delta of canal: As a canal approaches the river, it dumps its sediment load into it and the river mouth extends towards the sea on account of the sediment deposition. This lengthening of the canal further reduces the already small slope of the canal at its mouth. Thus, the sediment transporting capacity of the canal decreases and the canal deposits the sediment on the bed and banks of the canal channel raising the canal Stage. In general, the rise in the canal stage results in spilling over the banks and cutting through the banks if they are not sufficiently resistant. The spilled water may form branch channels or spill channels which after their full development, start behaving like 'the parent canal. As a result, the sediment transport capacity decreases considerably and the canal bed starts rising resulting in the formation of delta.

Base period: The time between the first watering of a crop at the time of its Sowing to its last watering before harvesting is called the base Period .















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