Friday, June 21, 2013





(Common to all branches of B.E/B.TECH. other than Marine engineering) 

Regulation 2008

Time: 3 hours Maximum:100 marks

Answer ALL Questions

PART A — (10 x 2 =20 marks)

1. What is the hardness of a solution containing 0.585 grams of NaCl and 0.6 grams of MgsO4 per litre? 
2. How is the exhausted zeolite softner bed regenerated? 
3. discuss functionality of a monomer with a suitable example? 
4. discuss condensation ploymerisation with a suitable example? 
5. What is the role of adsorband in catalysis? 
6. What is the effect of increase in temperature and increase in pressure on the adsorption of gas on the solid? 
7. What is a breeder reactor? 
8. State the reaction when a lead storage battery is reacharged? 
9. provide 2 examples for neutral refractory? 
10. discuss the lubrication action of graphite? 

PARTB (5x16=80marks) 

11. (a)(i) discuss the softening of water by deionisation process? (8) 
(ii) How is the temporary and permanent hardness of water determined? (8)


(b)(i) What is meant by reverse osmasis? discuss the purification of water by 
reverse osmosis? (8)
(ii) discuss the softening of water by zeolite process? (8)

12. (a)(i) Write the mechanism of free radical polymerisation . (8) 
(ii) explain the synthesis and uses of SBR and Butyl rubber. (8) 

(b) (i) provide an account on fibre reinforced plastics. (10) 
(ii)Describe the synthesis of polyurethane and state its uses. (6) 

13. (a) (i) Derive the Langumuir Adsorption Isotherm and inerpret the outcomes (10)
(1) at low pressure 
(2) at high pressure 
(ii)Distinguish ranging from Physisorption and Chemisorption. (6) 


(b)(i) State Friendlich adsorption isotherm and discuss the terms in it. 
discuss the various kinds of adsorption isotherms of gases on solid.(10)
(ii). explain the role of adsorbands in pollution abtement. (6) 

14. (a)(i) provide an account of H2-O2 fuel cell. (8) 
(ii) discuss the construction and working of Cd-Ni cell. (8) 


(b)(i) define using a block diagram the light water nuclear reactor for 
power generation. (10) 
(ii)Give an account of solar cells. (6) 

15. (a) (i) elaborate the characteristics of a good refractory? Write a note on carborundum.(8) 

(ii)What are lubricants?Discuss the various kinds of lubrication.(8) 


(b)Write short notes on any 2 of the following: 
(i)Carbon nanotubes(4) 
(ii)Refractoriness (4) 
(iii)Synthetic abrasives.(8) 

Engineering Materials and Metallurgy-Forth semester, Mechanical Engineering

Engineering Materials and Metallurgy-Forth semester, Mechanical Engineering

Anna University, Chennai.

B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, April/May 2012

Engineering Materials and Metallurgy

Fourth Semester

Mechanical Engineering

(Regulation 2008)

PART – A ( 2 * 10 marks)

1. Differentiate Isomorphous and Eutectic reactions.

2. Draw the microstructure eutectoid steel and white cast iron

3. Write the importance of spheroidising annealing

4. Define hardenability and case depth

5. Differentiate between Izod and Charpy Test.

6. Draw the SN curve for mild steel and Aluminium.

7. What is the effect of Alloying Nickel and Chromium in Steels?

8. Differentiate between precipitation hardening and dispersion strengthening.

9. Define degree of polymerization.

10. What are PEEK AND PMMA.

PART – B ( 5*16 marks)

11)a) i) Indicate the different invariant reactions in Iron – Iron Carbide phase diagram and draw and
label all the Phases.

 ii) Discuss the different classifications of steels and cast irons.


 b) i) Draw the indicative eutectic phasae diagram (partially soluble type)

 ii) Explain the Hume Rothery rules governing substitutional solid solution.

 iii) Write short note on about SG cast iron.

12) a) What is Annealing? Discuss in details on different types of annealing and compare with normalizing.


12)b) i) What is tempering? Discuss the structural transformation during tempering.

 ii) What is carburizing? Discuss nitriding process and its importance for industrials applications.

 iii) Describe the Jominy End test in details for determination of hardenability.

13)a) i) Draw the engineering stress – strain curve for mild steel, aluminium and cast iron. Discuss

the tensile test and different mechanical properties obtained in tensile testing.

 ii) Write a short note on compression test.

14) a) i) Describe the stainless steels with respect to composition, properties and applications.

 ii) What is Maraging steels? Discuss the strengthening method of Maraging steels.


 b)i) Discuss different types of copper alloys and their properties and applications.

 ii) Write a short note on bearing alloys.

15)a) Write the properties and applications of the following polymers and discuss anyone fabrication methods of polymers.
 i) PMMA
 ii) PP
 iii) ABS
 iv) PTFE


15)b) i) List the important engineering ceramic materials and discuss its general applications of ceramic materials in various engineering fields.

ii) What are the advantages and disadvantages of ceramics?

Friday, June 14, 2013

PH 233 — APPLIED MATERIALS SCIENCE: Fourth Semester, Mechanical Engineering Question Paper

PH 233 — APPLIED MATERIALS SCIENCE: Fourth Semester, Mechanical Engineering Question Paper

Anna University, Chennai.


Fourth Semester

Mechanical Engineering


Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks

Answer ALL questions.

Add neat diagrams wherever necessary.

PART A — (10 x 2 = 20 marks)

1. What are Miller Indices?

2. Differentiate between a primitive and a non–primitive cell.

3. Differentiate between Brittle fracture and Ductile fracture.

4. Define the term creep.

5. What is a phase diagram?

6. What are the influences of other elements on plain carbon steels?

7. Write the compositions and applications of constantan.

8. What important characteristics should the bearing metals possess?

9. What is sub–zero treatment of steel?

10. What is ‘‘Patenting’’?

PART B — (5 ? 16 = 80 marks)

11. Show that in a cubic crystal the spacing between consecutive parallel planes of Miller indices (h k l) is given by . (16)

12. (a) (i) Define atomic packing factor. (1)

(ii) Determine the packing factor for SC, BCC and FCC structure. (5 + 5 + 5)


(b) (i) Describe a Line Defect in detail explaining the principles of Edge dislocation and screw dislocation. (13)

(ii) What is a Burger vector? (3)

13. (a) (i) Explain with a neat diagram the different stages in creep curve. (12)

(ii) State the different causes of fatigue failure. (4)


(b) Explain the Griffith fracture theory of metals. (16)

14. (a) Explain in detail the effects of Carbon, Silicon, Manganese, Nickel, Chromium and Copper elements in cast iron. (16)


(b) Describe in detail the ore, properties and uses of Copper, Aluminium and Tin. (12 + 4)

15. (a) Write short notes on the following :

(i) Nitriding. (5)

(ii) Carburising. (5)

(iii) Cyaniding. (6)


(b) Write short notes on the following :

(i) Flame hardening. (5 )

(ii) Induction hardening. (5)

(iii) Laser hardening. (5 )

Automobile engineering: Eighth semester, Mechanical Engineering Question Paper

Automobile engineering: Eighth semester, Mechanical Engineering Question Paper

Anna University, Chennai


Eighth semester 

Mechanical Engineering

Automobile Engineering

Time: 3 Hours

Maximum:100 marks

PART A (10 X 2 =20)

1. What is meant by air pollution ? What are the pollutants emitted by an automobile?

2. Draw a layout of transmission system and illustrate the parts.

3. Write down the firing order of a 4 cylinder and 6 cylinder engine.

4. What is the purpose of cut-out relay?

5. What is the function of a car's generator?

6. What do you mean by fluid flywheel?

7. List out the types of front axle.

8. What is the function of an synchronize in a gearbox?

9. Define camber , Castor and toe in with sketches.

10. What is meant by a fuel cell and how it works?

PART B (5 X 16 =80)

11. (i) List out the various parts of a typical petrol engine

(ii) Explain briefly the construction of an S.I engine.

12 (a) (i) What are the functions of a carburetor?

(ii) Sketch an explain the construction and operation of a simple carburetor


(b) (i) Draw a typical ignition coil and name the parts

(ii) Explain the operation of battery coil ignition with a circuit diagram.

13 (a)(i) What is meant by clutch ? List out the requirements .

(ii) Explain the construction and operation of a typical single plate coil spring clutch


(i) What is meant by a fluid coupling and torque converter?

(ii) Explain th operation of sliding mesh gearbox and deduce the gear ratios.

14 (a) (i) What are the different types of live rear axles and illustrate them?

(ii) Explain the principle and working of a differential with neat sketch


(b) (i) What are the different types of steering gears used in an automobile?

(ii) With a neat diagram explain the construction and operation of a shock absorber.

15 (a) (i) Differentiate cross-ply and radial ply tyres.

(ii) Explain the construction and operation of hydraulic braking system with a neat sketch


(b) (i) Describe the salient features of using LPG as an alternate fuel

(ii) Explain why hydrogen is considered as the most favorable fuel for future.

Sunday, June 9, 2013

ME 1402 - MECHATRONICS: Seventh Semester, Mechanical Engineering Question Paper

ME 1402 - MECHATRONICS: Seventh Semester, Mechanical Engineering Question Paper

Anna University, Chennai


Seventh Semester

Mechanical Engineering


( Common to B.E. Part-Time Mechanical Engineering )

(Regulation 2004)

Time: Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

PART A  ( 10 x 2 = 20 marks )

1. Identify the different mechatronics systems used in automobiles.

2. What is the working principle of an eddy current proximity sensor?

3. A hydraulic cylinder is to be used to move a work piece through a distance of 60mm in 20 seconds. A force of 15KN is required to move the work piece. Determine the required hydraulic liquid flow rate if a cylinder with a piston diameter of 75mm is available.

4. Suggest suitable actuator for robot arm joint and justify.

5. Derive the equation for a translational mechanical system model with spring and mass.

6. Give an example for two-step mode control unit.

7. Draw the ladder logic diagram to represent two switches that are normally open and both have to be closed for a motor to operate.

8. Devise a timing circuit that will switch an output on for 1 sec then off for 20 sec then on for 1 sec, then off for 20 sec and so on.

9. Identify the sensor, signal conditioner and display elements in the Bourdon pressure

10. List the advantages of mechatronics design over traditional design.

PART B ( 5 x 16 = 80 marks )

11.(a) (i) Compare and contrast the control system for the domestic central heating system involving 
a bimetallic thermostat and that involving a microprocessor. (8)

(ii) Explain the static performance characteristics of a sensor. (8)


(b) Write short notes on:

(i) Thermocouple
(ii) Piezoelectric transducer
(iii) Incremental encoder
(iv) Photovoltaic transducer (4 x 4 = 16)

12.(a) Discuss about the following actuation systems: (4 x 4 = 16)

(i) Self-excited wound field shunt configuration dc motor.
(ii) Self-excited wound field series configuration dc motor.
(iii) Stepper motor.
(iv) Induction motor.


(b) A flat belt, 7 mm thick and 95 mm wide transmits power between two pulleys running at 500m/min.
The mass of the belt is 0.85kg/m length. The angle of lap in the smaller pulley is 155deg and the  coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley is 0.25. If the maximum permissible stress in the belt is 2 MN/m^2 find the maximum power transmitted and initial tension in the belt. (16)

13.(a) A hot object with capacitance C and temperature T, cools in a large room at temperature Ta. If the thermal system has a resistance R, derive an equation describing how the temperature of the hot
object changes with time and give an electrical analogue of the system. (16)


(b) (i) Propose a model for a stepped shaft used to rotate a mass and derive an equation relating the input torque and the angular rotation. Neglect damping effect. (8)

(ii) Describe and compare the characteristics of 1) proportional controller 2) proportional plus integral controller (8)

14.(a) Devise a system, using a PLC that could be used with a conveyor belt which is used to move an item to work station. The presence of the item at the work station is detected by means of breaking a 
contact activated by a beam of light to a photosensor. There it stops for 100 sec for an operation to be carried out and then starts moving. The motor for the belt is started by a normally open start switch and stopped by a normally closed switch. (16)


(b) Devise a circuit that could be used with a domestic washing machine to switch on a pump to pump water for 100 sec into the machine, then switch off the pump and switch on a heater for 50sec to heat the water. The heater is then switched off and another pump is switched on for 100sec to empty the water from the machine. (16)

15.(a) Explain the mechatronics systems used in an automatic camera with a neat block diagram. (16)


(b) Design a pick and place robot using mechatronics elements and explain about the robot control.


ME 2251 — HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER: Fourth Semester, Mechanical Engineering Question Paper

ME 2251 — HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER: Fourth Semester, Mechanical Engineering Question Paper

Anna University, Chennai.


Fourth Semester 

Mechanical Engineering 


(Regulation 2008) 

Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks 

(Use of approved Heat and Mass Transfer Data Book is permitted) 

Answer ALL questions 

PART A — (10 × 2 = 20 marks) 

1. State Fourier’s law of heat conduction.

2. What is heat generation in solids? Give examples.

3. What is lumped system analysis? When is it used?

4. In which mode of heat transfer is the convection heat transfer coefficient usually higher, natural or forced convection? Why?

5. Define bulk temperature.

6. List the various promoters used for maintaining drop-wise condensation.

7. Define LMTD of a heat exchanger.

8. What do you understand by thermal radiation?

9. What does the view factor represent? When the view factor from a surface to itself is zero?

10. What is the physical meaning of Schmidt number?

PART B — (5 × 16 = 80 marks) 

11. (a) (i) Define thermal conductivity. How does it vary with temperature for gases? (4)
(ii) Derive the general 3-dimensional heat conduction equation in cylindrical coordinates. Assume the material as homogeneous isotropic continues. (12)


(b) A cold storage room has walls made of 23 cm of brick on the outside, 8 cm of plastic foam and finally 1.5 cm of wood on the inside. The outside and inside air temperatures are 22°C and –2°C respectively. The inside and outside heat transfer coefficients are respectively 29 and 12 W/m^2.K. The thermal conductivity of brick, foam and wood are 0.98, 0.02 and 0.12 W/m.K respectively. If the total wall area is 90 m^2, determine the rate of heat removal by refrigeration and the temperature of the inside surface of the brick.

12. (a) (i) Define the velocity boundary layer and thermal boundary layer thicknesses for flow over a flat plate. (4)

(ii) Atmospheric air at 150°C flows with a velocity of 1.25 m/s over a 2 m long flat plate whose temperature is 25°C. Determine the average heat transfer coefficient and the rate of heat transfer for a plate width of 0.5 m. (12)


(b) A 6 m long section of an 8 cm diameter horizontal hot water pipe passes through a large room in which the air and walls are at 20°C. The pipe surface is at 70°C and the emissivity of the pipe surface is 0.7. Find the rate of heat loss from the pipe by natural convection and radiation. (16)

13. (a) Consider laminar film condensation of a stationary vapor on a vertical flat plate of length L and width b. Derive an expression for the average heat transfer coefficient. State the assumptions made. (16)


(b) (i) Explain briefly fouling in heat exchangers. (6)

(ii) Hot gases enter a finned tube, cross flow heat exchanger with a flow rate of 1.5 kg/s and a temperature of 250°C. The gases are used to heat water entering the exchanger at a flow rate of 1 kg/s and an
inlet temperature of 35°C. On the gas side, the overall heat transfer coefficient and the area are 100 W/m^2.K and 40 m^2  respectively. What is the rate of heat transfer by the exchanger and what are the
gas and water exit temperatures? Assume Cp of gas as 1.0 kJ/kg.K.  (10)

14. (a) (i) Distinguish between irradiation and radiosity. (4)

(ii) Consider a cylindrical furnace with outer radius = height = 1 m. The top (surface 1) and the base (surface 2) of the furnace have emissivities 0.8 & 0.4 and are maintained at uniform temperatures of 700 K and 500 K respectively. The side surface closely approximates a black body and is maintained at a temperature of
400 K. Find the net rate of radiation heat transfer at each surface during steady state operation. Assume the view factor from the base to the top surface as 0.38. (12)


(b) (i) Considering radiation in gases, derive the exponential-decay formula. (6)

(ii) Two very large parallel planes exchange heat by radiation. The emissivities of the planes are respectively 0.8 and 0.3. To minimize the radiation exchange between the planes, a polished aluminium radiation shield is placed between them. If the emissivity of the shield is 0.04 on both sides, find the percentage reduction in heat transfer rate. (10)

15. (a) (i) With neat sketches, explain the different types of fins. (4)

 (ii) Air at 1.01 bar and 30°C flows past a tray full of water with a velocity of 2 m/s. The partial pressure of water vapor is 0.7 kPa and the saturation pressure is 3.17 kPa. The tray measures 40 cm along the flow direction and has a width of 20 cm. Calculate the evaporation rate of water if the temperature on the water surface is 25°C. Assume the following properties for air: density, ρ 1.2 kg/m^3, kinematic viscosity, ν = 15 × 10^-6 m^2/s and diffusivity, D = 0.145 m^2/h. (12)


(b) Write short notes on the following: (8 + 8)

 (i) Analogy between heat and mass transfer

 (ii) Evaporation process in the atmosphere


ME 2302 — DYNAMICS OF MACHINERY: Fifth Semester, Mechanical Engineering Question Paper

ME 2302 — DYNAMICS OF MACHINERY: Fifth Semester, Mechanical Engineering Question Paper

Anna University, Chennai.


Fifth Semester

Mechanical Engineering


(Regulation 2008)

Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

PART A — (10 × 2 = 20 Marks)

1. Distinguish between crank effort and piston effort.

2. Define co-efficient of fluctuation of energy.

3. When is a system said to be completely balanced?

4. Name the efforts caused by the unbalanced primary force acting along the line of stroke due to partial balancing of locomotives.

5. Name the types of motion exhibited by critically damped or over damped vibrating systems.

6. Define logarithmic decrements.

7. Define transmissible.

8. When does resonance take place in a system?

9. When is a governor said to be Isochronous?

10. When is a governor said to be stable?

PART B — (5 × 16 = 80 Marks)

11. (a) The lengths of crank and connecting rod of horizontal steam engine are 300 mm and 1.2 m respectively. When the crank has moved 30° from the inner dead center, the acceleration of piston is 35 m/s^2. The average frictional resistance to the motion of piston is equivalent to a force of 550 N and net effective steam pressure on piston is 500 kN/m^2. The diameter of piston is 0.3 m and mass of reciprocating parts is 160 kg. Determine (i) Reaction on the cross-head guides; (ii) Thrust on the crankshaft bearings; and (iii) Torque on the crank shaft. [16]


(b) The torque delivered by two-stroke engine is represented by 
T = (1000 + 300 sin 2y — 500 cos 2y) N.m Where y is the angle turned by the crank from the inner-dead center. The engine speed is 250 rpm. The mass of the flywheel is 400 kg and radius of gyration 400 mm. Determine (i) the power developed; (ii) the total percentage fluctuation of speed; (iii) the angular acceleration of flywheel when the crank has rotated through an angle of 60° from the inner-dead center; and (iv) the maximum angular acceleration and retardation of the flywheel. [16]

12. (a) A shaft carries four rotating masses A, B, C and D in this order along its axis. The mass of B, C and D are 30 kg, 50 kg and 40 kg respectively. The planes containing B and C are 30 cm apart. The angular spacing of the planes containing C and D are 90° and 210° respectively relative to B measured in the same sense. If the shaft and masses are to be in complete dynamic balance, find (i) the mass and the angular position of mass A; and (ii) the position of planes A and D. [16]


(b) The firing order in a 6 cylinder vertical four stroke engine in-line engine is 1-4-2-6-3-5. The piston stroke is 100 mm and the length of each connecting rod is 200 mm. The pitch distances between the cylinder center lines are 100 mm, 100 mm, 150 mm, 100 mm, and 100 mm respectively. The reciprocating mass per cylinder is 1 kg and the engine runs at 3000 rpm. Determine the out-of-balance primary and secondary forces and couples on this engine, taking a plane midway between the cylinder 3 and 4 as the reference plane. [16]

13. (a) Determine: (i) the critical damping co-efficient, (ii) the damping factor, (iii) the natural frequency of damped vibrations, (iv) the logarithmic decrement and (v) the ratio of two consecutive amplitudes of a vibrating system which consists of a mass of 25 kg, a spring of stiffness 15 kN/m and a damper. The damping provided is only 15% of the critical value. [16]


(b) A shaft of length 1.25 m is 75 mm in diameter for the first 275 mm of length, 125 mm in diameter for the next 500 mm length, 87.5 mm in diameter for the next 375 mm length and 175 mm in diameter for the remaining 100 mm of its length. The shaft carries two rotors at two ends. The mass moment of inertia of the first rotor is 75 kgm2 where as of the second rotor is 50 kgm^2. Find the frequency of natural torsional vibrations of the system. The modulus of the rigidity of the shaft material may be taken as 80 GN/m^2. [16]

14. (a) A body having a mass of 15 kg is suspended from a spring which deflects 12 mm under weight of the mass. Determine the frequency of the free vibrations. What is the viscous damping force needed to make the motion a periodic at a speed of 1 mm/s? If, when damped to this extent, disturbing force having a maximum value of 100 N and vibrating at 6 Hz is made to act on the body, determine the
amplitude of the ultimate motion. [16]


(b) A machine supported symmetrically on four springs has a mass of 80 kg. The mass of the reciprocating parts is 2.2 kg which move through a vertical stroke of 100 mm with simple harmonic motion. Neglecting damping, determine the combined stiffness of the springs so that the
force transmitted to the foundation is 1/20th of the impressed force. The machine crankshaft rotates at 800 rpm. If, under actual working conditions, the damping reduces the amplitudes of successive vibrations by 30%, find: (i) the force transmitted to the foundation at 800 rpm, and (ii) the force transmitted to the foundation at resonance. [16]

15. (a) The turbine rotor of a ship has a mass of 2.2 tonnes and rotates at 1800 rpm clockwise when viewed from the aft. The radius of gyration of the rotor is 320 mm. Determine the gyroscopic couple and its effect when (i) The ship turns right at a radius of 250 m with a speed of 25 km/h., (ii) The ship pitches with the bow rising at an angular velocity of 0.8 rad/s., and (iii) The ship rolls at an angular velocity of 0.1 rad/s. [16]


(b) The following particulars refer to a pro-ell governor with open arms: Length of all arms = 200 mm, distance of pivot of arms from the axis of rotation = 40 mm, length of extension of lower arms to which each ball is attached =100 mm, mass of each ball = 6kg and mass of the central load = 150 kg. If the radius of rotation of the balls is 180 mm when the arms are inclined at an angle of 40° to the axis of rotation, find the equilibrium speed for the above configuration. [16] 


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