Dr. MGR University Question Papers,Paper I – APPLIED BASIC SCIENCES IN OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY,2008 to 2015 Question Paper,M.D.DEGREE BRANCH II –OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2008 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
 BRANCH II –OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
 Paper I – APPLIED BASIC SCIENCES IN
 OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY

 (For candidates admitted from 2004-2005 onwards)
Q.P. Code : 202009
 Draw suitable diagram wherever necessary.
Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks
I. ANATOMY - Answer any FOUR questions. (4 X 5=20)
1. Supports of uterus and its significance in gynaecology.
2. Lymphatic Drainage of vulva.
3. Anatomy of female urinary continence.
4. Course and branches of internal iliac artery.
5. Anatomy of anterior abdominal wall and incisions used in obstetric and
gynaecology.
II. PHYSIOLOGY - Answer any FOUR questions. (4 X 5=20)
1. Physiology of 3rd stage of labour.
2. Haemodynamic changes in normal pregnancy.
3. Describe the functions of oestrogen.
4. Describe physiology of ovulation.
5. Describe the role of prolactin in pregnancy.
III.BIOCHEMISTRY - Answer any THREE questions. (3 X 5=15)
1. Describe biochemical changes in HELLP SYNDROME.
2. Placental Hormones.
3. Glucose metabolism in pregnancy.
4. Abnormal Haemoglobins.
IV. PHARMACOLOGY - Answer any THREE questions. (3 X 5=15)
1. Define tocolysis and its place in preterm labour.
2. Oxytocics.
3. Anticonvulsive régimes in eclampsia.
4. Selective Estrogen receptor modulator.
V. MICROBIOLOGY - Answer any THREE questions. (3 X 5=15)
1. Role of viruses in cervical cancer.
2. Discuss the organisms causing PROM.
3. How to diagnose Gonococcal infection in female.
4. Describe the tests to diagnose HIV infections.
VI. PATHOLOGY - Answer any THREE questions. (3 X 5=15)
1. Describe macroscopic and microscopic features of metropathia
Haemorhagica.
2. Histogenesis of germ cell tumour.
3. Pathology of Krukenberg tumour.
4. Degenerative changes in fibroid Uterus.
______________

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2009 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
 Branch II – OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
Paper I – (for candidates admitted from 2004-2005 to 2007-2008) and
Part I – ( for candidates admitted from 2008-2009 onwards)
APPLIED BASIC SCIENCES IN OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY
Q.P. Code : 202009
Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks
Draw suitable diagram wherever necessary.
I. ANATOMY - Answer any FOUR questions. (4 x 5=20)
1. Supports of the uterus and its significance in gynaecology.
2. Lymphatic drainage of cervix.
3. Anatomy of female urinary continence.
4. Development of fetus and placenta.
5. Bony pelvis.
II. PHYSIOLOGY - Answer any FOUR questions. (4 x 5=20)
1. Physiology of labour.
2. Physiology of lactation.
3. Describe the role of prolactin in pregnancy.
4. Cardiac changes during pregnancy.
5. Describe the functions of oestrogen.
III.BIOCHEMISTRY - Answer any THREE questions. (3 X 5=15)
1. Describe biochemical changes in HELLP syndrome.
2. Describe iron metabolism in pregnancy.
3. Describe fluid and electrolyte balance.
4. What are the functions of pituitary hormones?
IV. PHARMACOLOGY - Answer any THREE questions. (3 X 5=15)
1. Role of to colytics in preterm labour.
2. Selective estrogen receptor modulators. (SERMS)
3. What are the effects of oral hypoglycemic agents?
4. Dinretics in pregnancy.
V. MICROBIOLOGY - Answer any THREE questions. (3 X 5=15)
1. Discuss the organisms causing PROM.
2. Describe the tests to diagnose HIV infection.
3. Candidiasis.
4. TORCH infection.
VI. PATHOLOGY - Answer any THREE questions. (3 X 5=15)
1. Vaginal cytology in obstetrics and gynaecology.
2. Histopathological changes in metropathia haemorrhagica.
3. Histogenesis of germ cell tumour.
4. Degenerative changes in fibroid uterus.
*****

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2009 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
 Branch II – OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
Paper I – (for candidates admitted from 2004-2005 to 2007-2008) and
Part I – ( for candidates admitted from 2008-2009 onwards)
APPLIED BASIC SCIENCES IN OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY
Q.P. Code : 202009
Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks
Draw suitable diagram wherever necessary.
I. ANATOMY - Answer any FOUR questions. (4 x 5=20)
1. Explain the lymphatic drainage of vulva.
2. Describe the functional histology of the ovary and the application in
 Gynaecology
3. Anal canal and importance in obstetrics
4. Foetal circulation
5. Anatomy of Fallopian tube and its relevance to fertility
II. PHYSIOLOGY - Answer any FOUR questions. (4 x 5=20)
1. Physiology of micturition. What is Genuine stress incontinence?
2. Discuss the role of fetus in physiology of labour.
3. Discuss the physiological changes of cardio vascular system in
 pregnancy.
4. Post operative fluid management and electrolyte management.
5. Discuss the neuro endocrinal control of ovarian function.
III.BIOCHEMISTRY - Answer any THREE questions. (3 x 5=15)
1. Steroidogesis
2. Discuss the nutritional requirements in pregnancy and iron metabolism
3. Biochemical changes in pregnancy induced hypertension
4. Changes in carbohydrate metabolism in pregnancy and its implications
IV. PHARMACOLOGY - Answer any THREE questions. (3 x 5=15)
1. Misoprostol use in obstetrics
2. Explain effect of iodine deficiency on reproduction
3. Discuss the chemotherapeutic drugs used in gynaecological
 malignancy
4. Ovulation induction drugs
V. MICROBIOLOGY - Answer any THREE questions. (3 x 5=15)
1. Explain the microbiology of pelvic inflammatory diseases
2. Discuss the principles of infection control
3. How to diagnose bacterial vaginosis
4. Discuss the immunology in trophoblastic disease
VI. PATHOLOGY - Answer any THREE questions. (3 x 5=15)
1. Explain the blood picture in different types of anemia
2. Describe the pathology of germ cell tumours of ovary
3. Describe the pathogenesis in AIDS
4. Explain the skeleton changes in menopause
*****

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2010 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
 Branch II – OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
Paper I – (for candidates admitted from 2004-2005 to 2007-2008) and
Part I – ( for candidates admitted from 2008-2009 onwards)
APPLIED BASIC SCIENCES IN OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY
Q.P. Code : 202009
Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks
Draw suitable diagram wherever necessary.
 Answer ALL questions.
I. ANATOMY (4 x 5=20)
1. Describe the course of ureter in pelvis and its surgical importance.
2. Anatomy of internal iliac artery and its clinical applications.
3. Corpus luteum.
4. Lymphatic drainage of cervix and its clinical importance.
II. PHYSIOLOGY (4 x 5=20)
1. Physiology of ovulation.
2. Physiological changes in urinary tract in pregnancy.
3. Physiology of uterine action.
4. Functional cysts of ovary.
III. BIOCHEMISTRY (3 x 5=15)
1. Iron supplementation in pregnancy.
2. Proteinuria.
3. Uric acid and perinatal outcome.
IV. PHARMACOLOGY (3 x 5=15)
1. Oxytocin.
2. Bromocriptine.
3. GnRH antagonists.
V. MICROBIOLOGY (3 x 5=15)
1. Trichomonas vaginalis.
2. TORCH infection and its significance.
3. Asymptomatic bacteriuria.
VI. PATHOLOGY (3 x 5=15)
1. Couvelaire uterus.
2. Carneous mole.
3. Pathology of hydatidiform mole.
*****

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2010 Question Paper      

 M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
 BRANCH II –OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
APPLIED BASIC SCIENCES IN
OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY
 Paper I - (for candidates admitted from 2004-2005 to 2007-2008) and
Part – I (for candidates admitted from 2008 -09 onwards)
Q.P. Code : 202009
 Draw suitable diagram wherever necessary.
Answer ALL questions.
Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks
I. ANATOMY (4 X 5=20)
1. Gartner’s Cyst.
2. Pelvic cellular tissue.
3. Changes in cervix before and during labour.
4. Lower uterine segment of uterus.
II. PHYSIOLOGY (4 X 5=20)
1. Cardiovascular changes during pregnancy.
2. Physiology of Lactation.
3. LH Surge.
4. Physiological changes after menopause.
III.BIOCHEMISTRY (3 X 5=15)
1. Fluid and electrolyte balance during labour.
2. Placental hormones.
3. Biochemical changes in pregnancy induced hypertension.
IV. PHARMACOLOGY (3 X 5=15)
1. Cisplatin.
2. Methergine.
3. Bromocryptine.
V. MICROBIOLOGY (3 X 5=15)
1. Monilial Vaginitis.
2. Herpes genitalis.
3. Human papilloma virus.
VI. PATHOLOGY (3 X 5=15)
1. Endometrium in DUB (Dysfuncational Uterine Bleeding).
2. Chorion villous sampling.
3. Squamous cell carcinoma of cervix
*****

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2011 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
BRANCH II – OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
APPLIED BASIC SCIENCES IN OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY
Q.P. Code : 202009
Time : 3 hours Maximum : 100 marks
 (180 Min)
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
Write notes on Pages Time Marks
 (Max.) (Max.) (Max.)
I. ANATOMY
1. Graafian follicle. 3 9 5
2. Surfactant. 3 9 5
3. Anatomical changes in menopause. 3 9 5
4. Prostaglandins in labour. 3 9 5
II. PHYSIOLOGY
1. Amniotic fluid. 3 9 5
2. Haematologal changes in pregnancy. 3 9 5
3. Progesterone. 3 9 5
4. Gonadotrophins. 3 9 5
III.BIOCHEMISTRY
1. Biochemical changes in iron deficiency anaemia. 3 9 5
2. Diuretics in pregnancy. 3 9 5
3. Tumour markers. 3 9 5
IV. PHARMACOLOGY
1. Cyclophosphamide. 3 9 5
2. Diuretics in pregnancy. 3 9 5
3. Mifepristone. 3 9 5
V. MICROBIOLOGY
1. Chlamydial infection. 3 9 5
2. Trichomonas vaginalis. 3 9 5
3. Puerperal infection. 3 9 5
VI. PATHOLOGY
1. Aria-Stella reaction. 3 9 5
2. Choriocarcinoma. 3 9 5
3. Borderline malignancy. 3 9 5
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2011 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
BRANCH II – OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
APPLIED BASIC SCIENCES IN OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
Q.P. Code : 202009
Time : 3 hours Maximum : 100 marks
 (180 Min)
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
Write notes on : Pages Time Marks
 (Max.) (Max.) (Max.)
I. ANATOMY
1. Development of ovary. 3 9 5
2. Vaginal atresia and its clinical stations. 3 9 5
3. Changes in fetal circulation after birth. 3 9 5
4. Urogenital diaphragm. 3 9 5
II. PHYSIOLOGY
1. Regulation of gonodotrophin secretion by GnRH. 3 9 5
2. Hormonal support to pregnancy before placental take over. 3 9 5
3. Skin changes in pregnancy. 3 9 5
4. Hormonal changes during ovulation. 3 9 5
III.BIOCHEMISTRY
1. ELISA in obstetrics and Gynecology. 3 9 5
2. Glycosuria in pregnancy. 3 9 5
3. Serum fibrinogen in pregnancy. 3 9 5
IV. PHARMACOLOGY
1. Advantages and disadvantages of Injection
Methylergometrine. 3 9 5
2. Paclitaxel. 3 9 5
3. Misoprostol in the management of PPH. 3 9 5
V. MICROBIOLOGY
1. Diagnosis of Chlamydia infection. 3 9 5
2. Microbiology of chorioamnionitis. 3 9 5
3. Rubella in pregnancy. 3 9 5
VI. PATHOLOGY
1. Vulvdynia. 3 9 5
2. Pathology of Endometrial adenocarcinoma. 3 9 5
3. Brenner’s tumour. 3 9 5
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2012 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
BRANCH II –OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
APPLIED BASIC SCIENCES IN OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY
Q.P. Code : 202009
Time : 3 hours Maximum : 100 marks
 (180 Min)
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
Write notes on Pages Time Marks
 (Max.) (Max.) (Max.)
I. ANATOMY
1. Describe Bony pelvis. 3 9 5
2. Anatomy of female Urinary Continence 3 9 5
3. Describe the histology of Graaffian follicle. 3 9 5
4. Cloaca. 3 9 5
II. PHYSIOLOGY
1. Briefly discuss the physiology of Labour. 3 9 5
2. What are the cardiac changes in Pregnancy? 3 9 5
3. Write a note on Physiology of Lactation. 3 9 5
4. Rh factor 3 9 5
III. BIOCHEMISTRY
1. Discuss the Bilirubin metabolism. 3 9 5
2. What is Triple Screening? 3 9 5
3. Sodium Pump 3 9 5
IV. PHARMACOLOGY
1. Methotrexate. 3 9 5
2. Prostaglandins in Obstetrics 3 9 5
3. Letrazole 3 9 5
V. MICROBIOLOGY
1. TORCH Infection 3 9 5
2. Group B Streptococcus 3 9 5
3. ELISA. 3 9 5
VI. PATHOLOGY
1. Describe pathology of Granulosa cell tumor 3 9 5
2. MHC Complex 3 9 5
3. Pathological Changes in Placenta 3 9 5

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2012 Question Paper

M.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
BRANCH VI –OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
APPLIED BASIC SCIENCES IN OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY
Q.P. Code : 222241
Time : 3 hours Maximum : 100 marks
 (180 Min)
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
Write notes on Pages Time Marks
 (Max.)(Max.)(Max.)
I. ANATOMY
1. Describe the Collateral circulation in the pelvis. 3 9 5
2. What is the lymphatic drainage of the cervix? 3 9 5
3. Describe the histology of Graaffian follicle. 3 9 5
4. Discuss the anatomy of the fallopian tube. 3 9 5
II. PHYSIOLOGY
1. What are the cardiovascular changes that occur in pregnancy? 3 9 5
2. Describe the endocrine control of the menstrual cycle. 3 9 5
3. Describe the composition and regulation of amniotic fluid. 3 9 5
4. What are the tests used in the diagnosis of pregnancy? 3 9 5
III. BIOCHEMISTRY
1. Discuss the Iron metabolism in pregnancy. 3 9 5
2. What are the tests used in screening for gestational diabetes. 3 9 5
3. Discuss the diagnosis of Hemolytic Anemia 3 9 5
IV. PHARMACOLOGY
1. Discuss the tocolytic drugs used in preterm labour. 3 9 5
2. Discuss the indications, dosage schedule and complications of
Methotrexate. 3 9 5
3. What are the drugs and regimens used for hormone replacement 3 9 5
therapy?
V. MICROBIOLOGY
1. Diagnosis of trichomonas vaginitis. 3 9 5
2. Definition and diagnosis of asymptomatic bacteriuria in 3 9 5
pregnancy.
3. Recommendations to reduce hospital acquired infection. 3 9 5
VI. PATHOLOGY
1. Describe pathology of Dermoid cyst of Ovary 3 9 5
2. Grading of Pap smear 3 9 5
3. Describe the pathology of Endometrial carcinoma 3 9 5
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2013 Question Paper

M.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
 BRANCH VI –OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
APPLIED BASIC SCIENCES IN OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY
Q.P. Code : 222241
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 marks
Write notes on:
I. ANATOMY (4X5=20)
1. Describe the course of pelvic ureter & its surgical importance.
2. Bartholin’s gland.
3. Draw diagram & explain lymphatic drainage of vulva.
4. Course & branches of internal iliac artery.
II. PHYSIOLOGY (4X5=20)
1. Normal Puberty
2. Inhibin
3. Role of prolactin in pregnancy
4. Haematological changes in pregnancy

III. BIO-CHEMISTRY (3X5=15)
1. Triple test
2. Tumour markers
3. Weight gain during pregnancy

IV. PHARMACOLOGY (3X5=15)
1. Carboplatin
2. RU 486
3. Selective oestrogen receptor modulators

V. MICROBIOLOGY (3X5=15)
1. Strategies to prevent perinatal HIV transmission
 2. Chlamydial infection
 3. Discuss the organisms causing septic shock.

VI. PATHOLOGY (3X5=15)
 1. Pathology of hydatidiform mole.
 2. Chorionic villus sampling.
 3. Ovarian pregnancy.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2014 Question Paper

M.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
APPLIED BASIC SCIENCES IN OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY
Q.P. Code : 222241
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 marks
Write notes on:
I. ANATOMY (4 x 5 = 20)
 1. Pelvic Diaphragm and its significance.
 2. Development of Mullerian Duct.
 3. Anal Canal.
 4. Uterine & vaginal blood supply.
II. PHYSIOLOGY (4 x 5 = 20)
 1. Physiology of onset of labour.
 2. Cardiovascular changes in Pregnancy.
 3. Physiology of lactation.
 4. Pituitary - Ovarian –Endometrial Cycle.
III. BIO-CHEMISTRY (3 x 5 = 15)
 1. Tumour markers in Epithelial tumours of ovary.
 2. Surfactants.
 3. Bilirubin metabolism.
IV. PHARMACOLOGY (3 x 5 = 15)
 1. Oxytocin.
 2. HCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin).
 3. Zidovudine.
V. MICROBIOLOGY (3 x 5 = 15)
 1. Maternal Immune response.
 2. Breast abscess.
 3. Principles of Antimicrobial Prophylaxis.
VI. PATHOLOGY (3 x 5 = 15)
 1. Cervical cytology.
 2. Endometrial Premalignant lesions.
 3. Pathogenesis of Chronic Pelvic Pain.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2015 Question Paper

M.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
PAPER I – APPLIED BASIC SCIENCES IN OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY
Q.P. Code : 222241
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 marks
Answer ALL questions
Write notes on:
I. ANATOMY (4 x 5 = 20)
 1. Histology of endometrium.
 2. Development of Vagina.
 3. Urogenital Diaphragm.
 4. Graffian follicle.
II. PHYSIOLOGY (4 x 5 = 20)
 1. Iron metabolism in pregnancy.
 2. Intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
 3. Functions of estrogen.
 4. Gap junction.
III. BIO-CHEMISTRY (3 x 5 = 15)
 1. Screening test for gestational diabetes.
 2. Alpha-feto protein.
 3. Lab investigations for iron deficiency anemia.
IV. PHARMACOLOGY (3 x 5 = 15)
 1. Clomiphene citrate.
 2. Thrombo prophylaxis.
 3. Tocolytics.
V. MICROBIOLOGY (3 x 5 = 15)
 1. Microbiology of chorioamnionitis.
 2. Rubella in pregnancy.
 3. Gardnerella vaginalis.
VI. PATHOLOGY (3 x 5 = 15)
 1. Borderline ovarian tumours.
 2. Liquid based cytology.
 3. Blood pictures in different types of anemia.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2015 Question Paper

M.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
PAPER I – APPLIED BASIC SCIENCES IN OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY
Q.P. Code : 222241
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 marks
Answer ALL questions
Write notes on:
I. ANATOMY (4 x 5 = 20)
 1. Supports of uterus.
 2. Fallopian tube anatomy.
 3. Development of placenta.
 4. Uterine Artery.
II. PHYSIOLOGY (4 x 5 = 20)
 1. Renal changes in pregnancy.
 2. Luteal hormone surge.
 3. Cervix in labour.
 4. Hormonal changes at menopause.
III. BIO-CHEMISTRY (3 x 5 = 15)
 1. Iron metabolism.
 2. Biochemical changes in pregnancy induced Hypertension.
 3. Role of anti-oxidants in obstetrics.
IV. PHARMACOLOGY (3 x 5 = 15)
 1. Estrogen preparations for hormone replacement therapy.
 2. Cabergoline.
 3. Low dose aspirin.
V. MICROBIOLOGY (3 x 5 = 15)
 1. Antibiotic prophylaxis.
 2. Vaginal flora.
 3. Microorganisms in pelvic inflammatory disease.
VI. PATHOLOGY (3 x 5 = 15)
 1. Krukenberg tumour.
 2. Premalignant lesions of vulva.
 3. Pathology of hydatiform mole.
******* 

Paper IV - MEDICINE INCLUDING CHILDREN’S DISEASES & RECENT ADVANCES,Dr. MGR University Question Papers,2008 to 2015 Question Papers,M.D. DEGREE BRANCH I –GENERAL MEDICINE

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2008 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
 BRANCH I –GENERAL MEDICINE
Paper IV - MEDICINE INCLUDING CHILDREN’S
 DISEASES & RECENT ADVANCES
 (Candidates admitted from 2004-05 onwards)
 Q.P. Code : 202004
Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks
Draw suitable diagram wherever necessary.
 Answer ALL questions.
I. Essay questions : (2 X 20 = 40)
1. Stem cell transplant in clinical practice.
2. Discuss the etiology, pathogenesis, course of the disease, laboratory data,
diagnosis, treatment, and complications of acute pancreatitis.
II. Write short notes on : (10 X 6 = 60)
1. Ventricular assist device.
2. SPECT.
3. Neoplastic Meningitis.
4. Swan-Ganz catheter.
5. Reentrant arrhythmias.
6. Tissue Engineering.
7. Familial Mediterranean Fever.
8. Secondary Vasculitis Syndromes.
9. Enteropathic Arthritis.
10.Lysosomal Storage Diseases.
____________

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2009 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS
BRANCH I – GENERAL MEDICINE
(For candidates admitted from 2004-2005 to 2007-2008)
Paper IV - MEDICINE INCLUDING CHILDREN’S
DISEASES & RECENT ADVANCES
Q.P. Code : 202004
Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks
Draw suitable diagram wherever necessary.
Answer ALL questions.
I. Essay questions : (2 x 20 = 40)
1. Describe the clinical features, diagnosis and management of
 organophosphorus poisoning.
2. Discuss the aetiology, pathophysiology, clinical features and
 management of pleural effusion.
II. Write short notes on : (10 x 6 = 60)
1. Cretinism.
2. Arsenic poisoning.
3. Renal transplantation.
4. Near- Drowning.
5. Febrile seizures.
6. Hyaline membrane disease.
7. Haemochromatosis.
8. Typhus fevers.
9. Indian childhood cirrhosis.
 10. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2009 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS
BRANCH I – GENERAL MEDICINE
(For candidates admitted from 2004-2005 to 2007-2008)
Paper IV - MEDICINE INCLUDING CHILDREN’S
DISEASES & RECENT ADVANCES
Q.P. Code : 202004
Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks
Draw suitable diagram wherever necessary.
Answer ALL questions.
I. Essay questions : (2 x 20 = 40)
1. Discuss pathology, clinical manifestations, diagnosis and management
 of amyloidosis.
2. Discuss pathophysiology, aetiology, clinical features, diagnosis and
 management of aortic stenosis.
II. Write short notes on : (10 x 6 = 60)
1. Temporal lobe epilepsy
2. Renal transplantation.
3. Primary complex
4. Universal Immunization
5. Arsenic poisoning.
6. Steven – Johnson syndrome
7. Marasmus
8. Magnesium deficiency
9. Diphtheria
 10. Food poisoning
******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2010 Question Paper

 M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
 Branch I – GENERAL MEDICINE
MEDICINE INCLUDING CHILDREN’S DISEASES &
RECENT ADVANCES
Paper IV – (for candidates admitted from 2004-2005 to 2007-2008)
and
Part II – Paper III ( for candidates admitted from 2008-2009 onwards)
Q.P. Code : 202004
Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks
Draw suitable diagram wherever necessary.
Answer ALL questions.
I. Essay questions : (2 x 20 = 40)
 1. Discuss the clinical features, diagnosis and management of
 organophosphorous compound poisoning.
2. Discuss about Acid-base disorders.
II. Write short notes on : (10 x 6 = 60)
1. Drug eluting stents.
2. Dual energy x-ray scan.
3. Ankylosing spondylitis.
4. Bonemarrow failure.
5. Diagnostic criteria for multiple sclerosis.
6. Diabetes insipidus.
7. Cerebral palsy.
8. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
9. Infliximab.
 10. Trinucleotide repeat disorders.
******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2010 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS
BRANCH I –GENERAL MEDICINE
MEDICINE INCLUDING CHILDREN’S DISEASES & RECENT
ADVANCES
Paper IV - (For candidates admitted from 2004-2005 to 2007-2008) and
Part II - Paper III – (for candidates admitted from 2008-09 onwards)

 Q.P. Code : 202004
Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks
Draw suitable diagram wherever necessary.
 Answer ALL questions.
I. Essay questions : (2 X 20 = 40)
1. Discuss the clinical features, pathophysiology, diagnosis and management
of acute myeloid leukemia.
2. Discuss etiology, pathophysiology, clinical features, diagnosis and
management of Constrictive pericarditis.
II. Write short notes on : (10 X 6 = 60)
1. Role of trace elements in Nutrition and Health.
2. Extra pulmonary manifestations of Sarcoidosis.
3. Whooping cough.
4. Cerebral palsy.
5. Interventional management of coronary artery disease.
6. Protein calorie malnutrition.
7. Evaluation of Haematuria.
8. Islet cell transplantation.
9. Neuroblastoma.
10.Flourosis.
******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2011 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
BRANCH I – GENERAL MEDICINE
MEDICINE INCLUDING CHILDREN’S DISEASES & RECENT ADVANCES
Q.P. Code : 202004
Time : 3 hours Maximum : 100 marks
 (180 Min)
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
I. Elaborate on : Pages Time Marks
 (Max.) (Max.) (Max.)
1. Enumerate the common Childhood Poisons and discuss
the Clinical features, Complications and Management 11 35 15
of Copper Sulphate Poison.
2. Discuss the various palliative medical care services in
terminally ill patients. 11 35 15
II. Write notes on :
1. Pediatric advanced life support. 4 10 7
2. Reye’s syndrome. 4 10 7
3. Complications of Tuberculous Meningitis. 4 10 7
4. Restless leg syndrome. 4 10 7
5. Obesity. 4 10 7
6. Renal tubular acidosis. 4 10 7
7. POEMS syndrome. 4 10 7
8. Newer therapy for Heart Failure. 4 10 7
9. Febrile fits. 4 10 7
 10. Cutaneous Drug reaction. 4 10 7
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2011 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
 BRANCH I –GENERAL MEDICINE
MEDICINE INCLUDING CHILDREN’S DISEASES
AND RECENT ADVANCES
Q.P. Code : 202004
Time : 3 hours Maximum : 100 marks
 (180 Min)
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
I. Elaborate on : Pages Time Marks
 (Max.) (Max.) (Max.)
1. Discuss the etiopathogenesis, clinical features,
investigations and management of Akinetic 11 35 15
rigid syndrome.
2. Discuss the epidemiology, clinical features
of hepatatis. Discuss the complications and current 11 35 15
 current concepts in management of hepatitis.
II. Write notes on :
1. Modified criteria of infective endocarditis. 4 10 7
2. Preventive strategies of ventilator associated pneumonia. 4 10 7
3. Haematological consequences of nephritic syndrome. 4 10 7
4. Achlorhydria. 4 10 7
5. Donor nephrectomy. 4 10 7
6. Delayed puberty. 4 10 7
7. Metabolic disorders - neonatal screening. 4 10 7
8. Infantile tremor syndrome. 4 10 7
9. Myotonic disorders. 4 10 7
 10. Lepra reactions. 4 10 7
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2012 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
BRANCH I –GENERAL MEDICINE
MEDICINE INCLUDING CHILDREN’S DISEASES & RECENT ADVANCES
 Q.P. Code : 202004
Time : 3 hours Maximum : 100 marks
 (180 Min)
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
I. Elaborate on : Pages Time Marks
 (Max.) (Max.) (Max.)
1. Discuss in detail the etiopathogenesis clinical features,
investigation and management of Toxoplasmosis. 16 35 15
2. Discuss the etiopathogenesis clinical features,
investigation and management of Iron deficiency anemia. 16 35 15
II. Write notes on :

1. Circulation of CSF. Add a note on Normal pressure
Hydrocephalus. 4 10 7
2. Enumerate the causes of Atrial Fibrillation, with a note on
Paroxysmal Atrial Fibrillation. 4 10 7
3. Pathological changes in osteoarthritis. Note on young
onset OA. 4 10 7
4. Classify Polycythemia with causes of High Hemoglobin. 4 10 7
5. Classify Portal Hypertension. Enumerate the causes of
Extra hepatic portal Hypertension. 4 10 7
6. Classify chronic Gastritis. Note on treatment of H.pylori
Infection. 4 10 7
7. Causes and management of recurrent spontaneous
 Pneumothorax. 4 10 7
8. Enumerate the problems with Hemodialysis. Note on
Intermittent Hemodialysis 4 10 7
9. Causes and diagnosis of SIADH. 4 10 7
10.Side effects of ART drugs, note on HAART. 4 10 7
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2012 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
BRANCH I –GENERAL MEDICINE
MEDICINE INCLUDING CHILDREN’S DISEASES & RECENT ADVANCES
 Q.P. Code : 202004
Time : 3 hours Maximum : 100 marks
 (180 Min)
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
I. Elaborate on : Pages Time Marks
 (Max.) (Max.) (Max.)
1. Discuss the Pathophysiology, clinical features,
investigations and management of Guillian Barrie
syndrome(GBS). 16 35 15
2. Discuss the etiopathogenesis, clinical features,
investigation and management of NHL 16 35 15
II. Write notes on
1. Adverse factors in Acute Pancreatitis. Discuss Auto
immune Pancreatitis. 4 10 7
2. Radiological presentation and clinical classification of
Bronchogenic carcinoma. 4 10 7
3. ECG and Potassium-significance. 4 10 7
4. Enumerate the causes of secondary hyperlipidemia. 4 10 7
5. Indications and contra indications of Renal Biopsy. 4 10 7
6. Enumerate the therapeutic procedures of Recurrent
Arrhythmia. Add a note on Catheter Ablation. 4 10 7
7. Discuss the features and management of “Thyroid Storm”. 4 10 7
8. Causes of Delayed Puberty with relevant investigation. 4 10 7
9. Classify opportunistic mycobacteria and the disease in
humans. 4 10 7
10.Spiral CT. 4 10 7
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2013 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
BRANCH I –GENERAL MEDICINE
MEDICINE INCLUDING CHILDREN’S DISEASES & RECENT
ADVANCES

Q.P. Code: 202004
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 marks
I. Elaborate on: (2X15=30)

1. Enumerate the various Vasculitis syndromes and discuss the clinical
features and management of Polyarteritis Nodosa.
2. Discuss in detail the evaluation and Management of a 25 yrs old male
patient brought unconscious to the Emergency Room.

II. Write notes on: (10X7=70)
1. Clinical features and treatment of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity disorder
2. Etiopathogenesis and management of Type – I Diabetes mellitus
3. Causes and clinical features of Dyslexia
4. Causes and diagnosis of Brain Death
5. Types and usefulness of Tissue Engineering
6. Name the Biomarkers of Internal malignancies and mention their
importance
7. List the various Adolescent Health problems and describe the management
8. Merits and De-merits of Newer oral anti – Diabetic drugs
9. Concepts and components of Hospice care
10.Complications and management of Febrile fits

*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2013 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
BRANCH I – GENERAL MEDICINE
MEDICINE INCLUDING CHILDREN’S DISEASES & RECENT ADVANCES
Q.P. Code: 202004
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 marks
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Enumerate the causes of Seizures in Children - Discuss Aetiopathology and Clinical
 features of Complex Partial Seizures.
 2. Enumerate clinical conditions requiring mechanical ventilation. Mention the types of
 Invasive and Non Invasive ventilator support. Discuss general considerations of
 management of ventilated patient.
II. Write notes on: (10 x 7 = 70)
1. Diarrhoeal disease in children
2. Immunisation schedule
3. Hyaline membrane disease
4. Hirsutism
5. Management of chronic pain
6. Congenital hypothyroidism
7. Hyponatremia
8. Scorpion Sting
9. Euthanasia
 10. Irritable bowel syndrome
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2014 Question Paper 

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
 BRANCH I –GENERAL MEDICINE
 MEDICINE INCLUDING CHILDREN’S DISEASES &
RECENT ADVANCES
 Q.P. Code :202004
Time : Three Hours Maximum : 100 marks

I. Elaborate on: (2X15=30)
1. Discuss the aetiology, evaluation and management of Dwarfism.
2. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features and management of hyponatremia.
II. Write notes on: (10X7=70)
1. Biologic DMARDS.
2. Diagnosis and management of CMV retinitis.
3. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia.
4. Tuberous sclerosis.
5. Evaluation of UTI in children.
6. Obesity in children.
7. Immunization in children.
8. Bone densitometry.
9. Restless leg syndrome.
10.Diagnosis and management of Wilm’s tumour.
 **********

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2015 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
BRANCH I – GENERAL MEDICINE
PAPER IV – MEDICINE INCLUDING CHILDREN’S DISEASES
AND RECENT ADVANCES
Q.P. Code : 202004
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 marks
Answer ALL questions
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Discuss the pathogenesis, clinical features, lab diagnosis, management and
 complications of Grave’s disease.

 2. Discuss the aetiopathogenesis, clinical manifestations, lab diagnosis, management and
 complications of acute pancreatitis.

II. Write notes on: (10 x 7 = 70)
 1. Viral gasteroenteritis in paediatrics
 2. Drugs and breast feeding.
 3. Henoch Schonlein purpura.
 4. Ascariasis.
 5. Management of thyroid dysfunction during pregnancy.
 6. Discuss briefly the post renal transplant management.
 7. Tafenoquine.
 8. Pleiotropic effects of Statins and the latest controversies associated with its use.
 9. CT imaging in cardiology.
 10. Recent advancements in the management of heart failure.
 *******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2015 Question Paper

M.D. DEGREE EXAMINATION
BRANCH I – GENERAL MEDICINE
PAPER IV – MEDICINE INCLUDING CHILDREN’S DISEASES
AND RECENT ADVANCES
Q.P. Code: 202004
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 marks
Answer ALL questions
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Discuss the causes, clinical features, laboratory diagnosis of metabolic acidosis
 in an infant.
 2. Discuss approach to acute poisoning and management at tertiary care hospital.
II. Write notes on: (10 x 7 = 70)
 1. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura in children.
 2. Brain death.
 3. Breaking bad news of Myocardial infarction to family of 30 year old male.
 4. Diabetic ketoacidosis in children.
 5. Continuous positive airway pressure.
 6. Severe acute malnutrition (SAM) in children.
 7. Evaluation of hematuria in a child.
 8. Pneumococcal vaccines.
 9. Newer anti retroviral drugs.
10. Ebola virus.
******* 

PAPER IV – SURGERY INCLUDING ANAESTHESIA,THIRD M.B.B.S.PART – II, 2008 to 2015 Question Papers,Dr. MGR University Question Papers

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2008 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper IV – SURGERY INCLUDING ANAESTHESIA
Q. P. Code : 524084
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Etiology, pathology, clinical features and management of carcinoma stomach?
 2. Etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, complications and management of hydatid
 cyst of liver
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Pilonidal sinus.
2. Split skin grafting.
3. Intussusception.
4. Hiatus hernia.
5. Spinal Anaesthesia.
6. Extradural Hematoma.
7. Thyroglossal cyst.
8. Pseudocyst of pancreas.
9. Wilms tumor.
 10. Fibroadenoma of Breast.
III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)
1. What is calot’s triangle? What are it’s contents?
2. Murphy’s triad.
3. Whipples triad.
4. Branham sign.
5. Milian’s ear sign.
6. Trousseau’s sign.
7. Mondor’s disease.
8. Epididymal cyst.
9. Surgical complications of typhoid.
 10. Predisposing factors for sigmoid volvulus.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2009 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper IV – SURGERY INCLUDING ANAESTHESIA
Q. P. Code : 524084
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Discuss Etiology, Pathology, clinical features and surgical management of
 parathyroid Adenoma.
 2. Etiopathogenesis clinical features and management of Carcinoma breast T2 N1 M0.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Fistula in Ano.
2. cystosarcoma phylloides.
3. Epigastric hernia.
4. Acute Pancreatitis.
5. Phimosis.
6. Epidural anaesthesia.
7. Hypernephroma.
8. Thyroglossal cyst.
9. Squamous cell carcinoma face.
 10. Necrotising fascitis.
III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)
1. Adson’s test.
2. Foramen of Winslow.
3. Fine needle aspirations cytology.
4. Lipoma of cord.
5. Tinel’s Sign.
6. Breast Abscess.
7. Complication of Perforated Appendix.
8. Tuberculosis Lymphadenitis.
9. Orchitis.
 10. Dercum Disease.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2009 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper IV – SURGERY INCLUDING ANAESTHESIA
Q. P. Code : 524084
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Etiology, pathology, clinical features and management of carcinoma rectum.
 2. Etiology, pathology, clinical features of and management of calculus cholecystitis.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. P.S.A.
2. General endotracheal anesthesia.
3. Dermoid cyst.
4. Pseudo intestinal obstruction.
5. Squamous cell carcinoma.
6. Glascow coma scale.
7. Causes of upper GI bleeding.
8. Barrey’s Aneurysm.
9. Biliary atresia.
 10. Congenital hydrocele.
III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)
1. Murphy’s triad.
2. Points to identify facial nerve during parotid surgery.
3. Factors influencing wound healing.
4. Radio isotopes in diagnosis of surgical conditions.
5. FNAC.
6. Temporary colostomy.
7. Excision biopsy.
8. Causes of hyper calcemia.
9. Indications for urinary divertion.
 10. Surgical complications of enteric fever.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2010 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper IV – SURGERY INCLUDING ANAESTHESIA
Q. P. Code : 524084
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features and management of carcinoma stomach.
 2. Classify testicular tumours.
 How will you investigate, diagnose and treat a case of seminoma testis.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Epidural anaesthesia.
2. Transfusion reactions.
3. Cystic hygroma.
4. Complications of splenectomy.
5. Umbilical hernia.
6. Colonoscopy.
7. Lipoma.
8. Flail chest.
9. Factors influencing wound healing.
 10. Congenital hydrocele.
III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)
1. Horse shoe kidney.
2. Gynaecomastia.
3. Blood transfusion.
4. Torsion of testis.
5. Paraphimosis.
6. Calot’s triangle.
7. Pneumothorax.
8. Rodent ulcer.
9. Lucid interval.
 10. ESWL.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2010 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper IV – SURGERY INCLUDING ANAESTHESIA
Q. P. Code : 524084
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Etiology, pathology, clinical features and management of acute intestinal obstruction.
 2. Etiology, pathology, clinical features and management of Benign enlargement of
 prostate.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Hydotid cyst of liver.
2. Pneumothorax.
3. Patent Ductus Arteriosus.
4. Cystosarcoma phylloides.
5. Solitary nodule of thyroid.
6. Femoral hernia.
7. Fistula-in-Ano.
8. Bronchial cyst.
9. Deep vein thrombosis.
 10. Spinal Anaesthesia.
III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)
1. Common local anaesthetic techniques.
2. Post operative complications of thyroidectomy.
3. Treatment of Paralytic Ileus.
4. Surgical anatomy of inguinal canal.
5. Complications of Gall stones.
6. Lymphatic drainage of breast.
7. Dog care surgery.
8. Four causes for splenomegaly.
9. Mention Branches of external carotid artery.
 10. Keloid.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2011 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper IV – SURGERY INCLUDING ANAESTHESIA
Q. P. Code : 524084
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Describe the clinical features and management of Thyrotoxicosis.
 2. Classify the causes of obstructive jaundice. Describe the investigations used in diagnosis.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. C.P.R.
2. Varicocele.
3. Acidosis-metabolic
4. Hodgkin’s disease.
5. Branchial cyst.
6. Femoral hernia.
7. S.S.G.
8. FNAC.
9. Lidocaine.
 10. Pulse oximeter.
III. Short Answer Questions : (15 x 2 = 30)
1. Seminoma.
2. Iodine 131.
3. Surgery in diabetic patient.
4. Ryles’ tube.
5. Arteriogram.
6. Glasgow coma scale.
7. Quart regimen.
8. Colonic polyps.
9. Prolapse Pile mass.
 10. Melanoma.
 11. Guillotine amputation.
 12. Thyroglossal cyst.
 13. Anti thyroid drugs.
 14. Oxygen therapy.
 15. Ventilators in ICU.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2011 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper IV – SURGERY INCLUDING ANAESTHESIA
Q. P. Code : 524084
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 10 = 20)
 1. Describe the management and clinical features of secondaries in neck lymphnodes.
 2. Describe in detail the pathology and surgical management of carcinoma penis.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Tetanus.
2. Hypokalemia.
3. Burns-fluid therapy.
4. Epidural anaesthesia.
5. Boyle’s apparatus.
6. Arterial emboli.
7. Deep Vein Thrombosis.
8. Parotid tumors.
9. Digital block anaesthesia.
 10. Lumbar puncture.
III. Short Answer Questions : (15 x 2 = 30)
1. Torsion testis.
2. MRI.
3. Radio responsive tumors.
4. Universal Precaution.
5. Ankle systolic pressure index.
6. Hashimoto’s thyroditis.
7. Wilm’s tumor.
8. Fistula in ano.
9. Haemangioma.
 10. Achalasia cardia.
 11. Linitus Plastica.
 12. Hour glass stomach.
 13. Amoebic liver abscess.
 14. Laparoscopic surgery.
 15. Stages of peritonitis in Duperforation.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper 

2012 Question Paper 

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Paper IV – SURGERY INCLUDING ANAESTHESIA
Q. P. Code : 524084
Time : Three Hours Maximum: 60 Marks
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
I. Elaborate on: Pages Time Marks
 (Max.) (Max.) (Max.)
 1. Discuss pathology management of Wilms Tumor. 14 25 7.5
 2. Discuss the etiology, clinical features and management
 of varicose vein. 14 25 7.5
II. Write notes on:
1. Squamouscell carcinoma. 3 8 3
2. Fibroadenoma. 3 8 3
3. Hypertrophic scar. 3 8 3
4. Pseudocyst of pancreas. 3 8 3
5. Lymph cyst. 3 8 3
6. Lipoma. 3 8 3
7. Intussuception. 3 8 3
8. Ischio Rectal Absces. 3 8 3
9. Pneumothorax. 3 8 3
 10. Spinal anaesthesia. 3 8 3
III. Short Answers on:
1. Spigelian Hernia. 1 5 1
2. Ulcer edges. 1 5 1
3. D/B exudates and transudate. 1 5 1
4. Premalignant lesions of oral cavity. 1 5 1
5. Antiobioma. 1 5 1
6. Lingual Thyroid. 1 5 1
7. Collar stud abscess. 1 5 1
8. Courvoisier’s law. 1 5 1
9. Tongue tie. 1 5 1
 10. Desmoid tunour. 1 5 1
 11. Calot’s Triangle. 1 5 1
 12. Troisseir’s sign. 1 5 1
 13. Pilonidal sinus. 1 5 1
 14. Staghorn calculi. 1 5 1
 15. Claw Hand. 1 5 1
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2013 Question Paper

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Paper IV – SURGERY INCLUDING ANAESTHESIA
Q. P. Code : 524084
Time : Three Hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Discuss the pathology and surgical management of CARCINOMA PENIS.
 2. Discuss the etiopathogenesis, clinical features management of GAS GANGRENE.
II. Write notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Neurofibroma.
2. Endotracheal anaesthesia.
3. Mixed parotid tumour.
4. Breast abscess.
5. Phimosis.
6. Post Thyroidectomy complications.
7. Undescended testis.
8. Flail chest.
9. Vesical calculus.
 10. Deep vein thrombosis.
III. Short Answers on: (10 x 2 = 20)
1. AV fistula.
2. Bupivacaine.
3. Umblical hernia.
4. Linitis plastica.
5. Adamantinoma.
6. MRI.
7. Lymphangioma.
8. Ritcher’s Hernia.
9. Frey’s syndrome.
 10. Dercum’s disease.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2013 Question Paper 

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Paper IV – SURGERY INCLUDING ANAESTHESIA
Q. P. Code : 524084
Time : Three Hours Maximum: 60 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)
 1. Classify salivary gland tumor.
 Discuss clinical features and management of pleomorphic adenoma of parotid
 2. Etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, management and complications of
 acute pancreatitis.
II. Write notes on: (10 x 3 = 30)
1. Blood transfusion-complication.
2. Thrombo Angitis Obliterans (TAO).
3. Femoral Hernia.
4. Renal tuberculosis.
5. Tracheostomy.
6. Glasscow coma scale.
7. Management of appendicular mass.
8. Types of suture material.
9. Universal Precautions.
 10. Thyroglossal cyst.
III. Short answers on: (10 x 1 = 10)
1. Anal Fissure.
2. Sites of porto-systemic anastomosis.
3. Lateral aberrant thyroid.
4. Phimosis.
5. Calot’s triangle.
6. Complications of hydrocele.
7. Lipoma.
8. Peyronie’s disease.
9. Indications for splenectomy.
 10. Epidural Anaesthesia.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2014 Question Paper

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Paper IV – SURGERY INCLUDING ANAESTHESIA
Q. P. Code : 524084
Time : Three Hours Maximum: 60 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)
 1. Discuss the Aetiology, pathology and surgical management of carcinoma Tongue.
 2. Discuss the Etipathogenesis, clinical features, management of obstructed inguinal
 hernia.
II. Write notes on: (10 x 3 = 30)
1.Teratoma Testis
2. Succinylcholine
3. Ransons criteria
4. Deep Palmar Abscess
5. Ranula
6. Thyroid storm
7. Open chest injuries
8. Gall stone
9. Lumbar sympathectomy
 10. Warthins tumor.
III. Short Answers on: (10 x 1 = 10)
1.Haemangioma
2. Sensorcaine
3. Epigastric Hernia
4. Wilms Tumor
5. Dentigerous cyst
6. ERCP
7. Exopthalmos
8. Intussusception
9. Kaposi Sarcoma
 10. Desmoid tumor.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2014 Question Paper

THIRD YEAR M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART - II
Paper IV – SURGERY INCLUDING ANAESTHESIA
Q. P. Code: 524084
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 60 Marks
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)
 1. Discuss etiology, clinical features and management of Obstructive Jaundice.
 2. Discuss the etiology, clinical features and management of Carcinoma Rectum.
II. Write Notes on: (10 x 3 = 30)
 1. Complications of varicose vein.
2. Fibroadenoma.
3. Keloid.
4. Pseudocyst of pancreas.
5. Carcinoid tumour.
6. Appendicular abscess.
7. Incisional hernia.
8. Solitary thyroid nodule.
9. Circumcision.
 10. Spinal anaesthesia.
III. Short Answers on: (10 x 1 = 10)
 1. Foleys catheterization.
2. Collar stud abscess.
3. Complications of Pyocele
4. Tongue tie.
5. Phyllodes tumour.
6. Calot’s Triangle.
7. Prevention of Tetanus.
8. Pilonidal sinus.
9. Strangulated hernia.
 10. Flexible endoscopy.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2015 Question Paper

THIRD YEAR M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART II
PAPER IV – SURGERY INCLUDING ANAESTHESIA
Q.P. Code: 524084
Time: Three hours Maximum : 60 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)
1. Describe etiopathogenesis of gallstones, investigations and treatment.
2. Patient has ulcer near Right medial malleolus. How will you evaluate and treat?
II. Write notes on: (6 x 5 = 30)
1. Etiology of cancer stomach
2. Choledochal cyst
3. Intussuception
4. General Anaesthesia
5. Basal cell carcinoma
6. Urethral injury
III. Short answers on: (5 x 2 = 10)
1. HLA matching
2. Spermatocele
3. Tumour markers in testicular tumours
4. Annular pancreas
5. Dry gangrene
 *********

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2015 Question Paper

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
PAPER IV – SURGERY INCLUDING ANAESTHESIA
Q.P. Code: 524084
Time : Three Hours Maximum : 60 marks
Answer ALL questions
I. Elaborate : (2 x 10 = 20)
 1. Describe Etiology, Pathology, Clinical features and Management of Carcinoma of
 Pancreas.
 2. Different causes of Splenomegaly and surgical management of portal hypertension.
II. Write notes on : (6 x 5 = 30)
 1. Ectopic Vesicae.
 2. Hydatid Cyst of Liver.
 3. Regional Anaesthesia.
 4. Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis.
 5. Metabolic Acidosis.
 6. Burger’s Disease.
III. Short answers on : (5 x 2 = 10)
 1. Stove-in-Chest
 2. Muscle Relaxants.
 3. Polycystic Kidney.
 4. Adamantinoma.
 5. Anuria.
******* 

2008 to 2015 Question Papers,FINAL M.B.B.S.PART – II, Dr. MGR University Question Papers, Paper III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2008 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS
Q. P. Code : 524083
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
Answer Section A & B separately
SECTION - A
I. Essay Question : (1 x 15 = 15)
 1. Describe the aetiology, Pathogenesis and management of Gasgangrene.
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 5 = 25)
 1. Neurofibroma.
 2. Inhalation Injury.
 3. Warthin’s tumor.
 4. Complications of blood transfusion.
 5. Trophic ulcer.
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 2 = 10)
 1. Name four swellings which give cross-fluctuation?
 2. Name four sarcomas which predominantly spread by lymphatic route?
 3. Name four premalignant conditions of oral cavity?
 4. Write four indications for amputation?
 5. Modified perthe’s test.
SECTION - B
I. Essay Question : (1 x 15 = 15)
 1. Describe the Anatomy, Pathology, Classification, Clinical features and management of
 Fracture neck of femur?
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 5 = 25)
 1. Osteosarcoma.
 2. Septic arthtitis.
 3. Spina bifida.
 4. Fracture of the patella.
 5. Osteoporosis.
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 2 = 10)
 1. Define : (a) Spondylolysis. (b) Spondylolisthesis.
 2. (a) Galeazzi Sign. (b) Ortolami’s test.
 3. Name the nerves injured in the following situations:
 (a) Fracture shaft of humerus (b) Supra condylar fracture of humerus.
 4. Name the Osteochondritis of the following: (a) Femoral head (b) Lunate bone.
 5. Write the typical deformities in:
 (a) Posterior dislocation of HIP (b) Anterior dislocation of HIP.
******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2009 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS
Q. P. Code : 524083
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
Answer Section A & B separately
SECTION - A
I. Essay Question : (1 x 15 = 15)
 1. Describe the aetiology, Pathogenesis and management of thrombo angitis obliterans.
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 5 = 25)
 1. Astrocytoma.
 2. Haemopneumothorax.
 3. Rodent ulcer.
 4. Haemangioma.
 5. Rh incompatability.
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 2 = 10)
 1. Name four difference between keloid & Hypertrophic scar.
 2. Name four premalignant conditions of Penile swelling.
 3. Name four difference between Exudate and Transudate.
 4. Name four indications for using Romovac Suction drain.
 5. Intermittent Claudication.
SECTION - B
I. Essay Question : (1 x 15 = 15)
 1. Describe the Anatomy, Pathology, clinical features and management of colles fracture.
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 5 = 25)
 1. Pagets disease of bone.
 2. Osteoclastoma.
 3. Tuberculous arthritis.
 4. Menigo myelocele.
 5. Bennet’s fracture.
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 2 = 10)
 1. Causes: (a) Pes Planus (b) Pes Cavus.
 2. Differences between Quadriceps contusion and Quadriceps Rupture.
 3. Deformities in a talipes equinovarus and Talipes equino valgus.
 4. Name the nerves injured in the following situations:
 (a) Medical Epicondylitis (b) tennis Elbow.
 5. Write the typical deformities in: (a) Colles Fracture (b) Monteggia fracture.
******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2009 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS
Q. P. Code : 524083
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
Answer Section A & B separately
SECTION - A
I. Essay Question : (1 x 15 = 15)
 1. Discuss the pathophysiology of burns. How do you manage a patient with 30% burns
 with a short note on post burns sequelae?
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 5 = 25)
 1. Bronchial cyst.
 2. AIDS.
 3. MRSA
 4. Crush syndrome.
 5. Septicemic shock.
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 2 = 10)
1. List out four investigations in a case of breast lump.
2. Multiple - Endocrine neoplasia type – II.
3. Differential diagnosis of ulcer tongue.
4. Antibioma.
 5. Pyothorax.
SECTION - B
I. Essay Question : (1 x 15 = 15)
 1. Describe the classification, clinical features, complications and management of
 dislocation of the Hip.
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 5 = 25)
 1. Claw Hand.
 2. Supra condylar fracture of humerus.
 3. Chronic osteomylitis.
 4. Bone graft.
 5. Corpal tunnel syndrome.
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 2 = 10)
 1. Cal caneal spur.
 2. Ape thumb deformity.
 3. Non- union.
 4. Volkman’s ischemic contracture.
 5. Pathological fracture.
.*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2010 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS
Q. P. Code : 524083
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
Answer Section A & B separately
SECTION - A
I. Essay Question : (1 x 15 = 15)
 1. Enumerate the causes of heamatemesis. Discuss its management.
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 5 = 25)
1. Phyllodes tumour.
2. Branchial fistula.
3. Pseudo cyst of pancreas.
4. Fatty hernia of the linea alba.
5. MODS.
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 2 = 10)
1. ANDI.
2. Bubonocele.
3. Hydroadenitis suppurativa.
4. Desmoid tumour.
5. Reichter’s hernia.
SECTION - B
I. Essay Question : (1 x 15 = 15)
 1. Discuss clinical features, investigations & treatment of supra condylar fracture of
 humerus.
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 5 = 25)
 1. CTEV.
 2. Ruptured tendo achillis.
 3. Spondylolysthesis.
 4. Non union.
 5. Osteoclastoma.
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 2 = 10)
 1. Depuytren’s contracture.
 2. Neuropraxia.
 3. Septic arthritis.
 4. Exostosis.
 5. Erb’s palsy.
******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2010 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS
Q. P. Code : 524083
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
Answer Section A & B separately
SECTION - A
I. Essay Question : (1 x 15 = 15)
 1. Describe the etiology, clinical features and treatment of varicose veins of the lower limb.
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 5 = 25)
1. Duplex Imaging.
2. Cirsoid Aneurysm.
3. Melanoma.
4. Marjolin’s Ulcer.
5. Hodg Kin’s Lymphoma.
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 2 = 10)
1. Paronychia.
2. Thiersch’s skin graft.
3. False Aneurysm.
4. Glasgow coma scale.
5. Phimosis.
SECTION - B
I. Essay Question : (1 x 15 = 15)
1. Classify fractures around elbow. Write the x-ray findings, clinical features
 and management of Colle’s fracture and complications.
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 5 = 25)
1. Sequestrum.
2. Foot drop.
3. Bone secondaries.
4. Codeman’s triangle.
5. Morant – Bakers Cyst.
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 2 = 10)
1. Ganglion.
2. Braynt’s triangle.
3. Plaster of Paris.
4. Web space infection of hand.
5. Pott’s disease of spine.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2011 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS
Q. P. Code : 524083
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
SECTION - A
I. Essay Question : (1 x 10 = 10)
 1. Describe the pathology, clinical features, investigations and management of
 carcinoma – buccal mucosa.
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 5 = 25)
1. Hepatitis B
2. Bed sores.
3. T.A.O.
4. Rodent Ulcer.
5. Tuberculous lymphadenitis.
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 3 = 15)
1. Venous ulcer.
2. Leukoplakia.
3. Lingual thyroid.
4. Frey’s Syndrome.
5. Cystic Hygroma.
SECTION - B
I. Essay Question : (1 x 10 = 10)
1. Classify bone tumours. Describe the clinical features of Osteogenic Sarcoma.
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 5 = 25)
1. Clavicle fracture.
2. Colle’s fracture.
3. Radial nerve injuries.
4. Golfer’s elbow.
5. Myositis ossificans
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 3 = 15)
1. Exostosis.
2. Bone secondaries.
3. Genu valgum.
4. Tardy ulnar palsy.
5. Phantom limb.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2011 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS
Q. P. Code : 524083
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
Answer Section A & B separately
SECTION - A
I. Essay Question : (1 x 10 = 10)
 1. Describe in detail the diagnosis and management of a nodule in thyroid.
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 5 = 25)
1. Tetanus.
2. Universal Precaution.
3. Post operative care for abdominal surgery.
4. Pleomorphic adenoma.
5. Fibroadenoma breast.
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 3 = 15)
1. Tetany.
2. Cystisarcoma Phyllodes.
3. Flail chest.
4. Hydatid cyst.
5. Neo adjuvant therapy.
SECTION - B
I. Essay Question : (1 x 10 = 10)
1. Describe the clinical features and management of fracture Neck of femur.
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 5 = 25)
1. Claw hand.
2. Tennis elbow.
3. Kocher’s manuevre.
4. Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture.
5. Madura foot.
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 3 = 15)
1. Malunion.
2. Ankylosis.
3. Haemarthrosis.
4. Dequervian’s teno synovitis.
5. Ulnar paradox.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2012 Question Paper

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS
Q. P. Code : 524083
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 60 Marks
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
SECTION - A
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)
 1. Classify testicular tumour. Aetiopathology, clinical features, investigation and
 management of teratoma
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 3 = 15)
1. Subdiaphragmatic abscess
2. Submandibular salivary gland
3. Retroperitonial tumors
4. Mesenteric cyst
5. Lipoma
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 1 = 5)
1. Orocutaneous fistula
2. Lingual thyroid
3. Danger area of face
4. Umbilical granuloma
5. Varicose vein complications.
SECTION - B
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)
1. Describe in detail about intertrochanteric fractures femur and management
II. Write Short notes on : (5 x 3 = 15)
1. Colles fracture
2. Complication of tuberculous spine
3. Osteogenic sarcoma
4. Osteomyelitis
5. Ulnar claw hand
III. Short Answer Questions : (5 x 1 = 5)
1. Mal union
2. Synovial membrane
3. Ankle joint
4. Shoulder dislocation
5. Epiphyseal injury.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2012 Question Paper

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Paper III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS
Q. P. Code : 524083
Time : 180 Minutes Maximum: 60 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: Pages Time Marks
 (Max.) (Max.) (Max.)
 1. Discuss the clinical features, pathology and management
 of Carcinoma breast. 16 25 10
II. Write notes on:
1. Torsion testis. 3 8 3
2. Nerve blocks. 3 8 3
3. Thyroglossal cyst. 3 8 3
4. Fistula in ANO. 3 8 3
5. Rodent ulcer. 3 8 3
III. Short Answers on:
1. Ingrowing toe nail. 1 5 1
2. Day care surgery. 1 5 1
3. QUART. 1 5 1
4. Radioactive iodine. 1 5 1
5. Meckel’s diverticulum. 1 5 1
SECTION - B
I. Elaborate on:
 1. Describe aetiopathology and clinical features of anterior
 dislocation of the shoulder. Describe surgical options in a
 20 year old athlete with recurrent dislocation shoulder. 16 25 10
II. Write notes on:
 1. Mechanism of injury & clinical features of posterior dislocation hip. 3 8 3
 2. Clinical features, diagnosis & management of osteoid osteoma. 3 8 3
 3. Clinical features and diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis. 3 8 3
 4. Uses of external fixation. 3 8 3
 5. Surgical treatment of congenital talipes equinovarus in a 1 year old. 3 8 3
IV. Short answers on:
 1. Classify Epiphyseal injury. 1 5 1
 2. X-ray appearance in osteosarcoma. 1 5 1
 3. Clinical features of giant cell tumour. 1 5 1
 4. Treatment of Hypertrophic non union. 1 5 1
 5. What is sequestrum. 1 5 1
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2013 Question Paper

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Paper III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS
Q. P. Code : 524083
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
SECTION - A
I. Elaborate on : (1 x 15 = 15)
 1. Describe the etiology, clinical features, diagnosis and management of carcinoma rectum.
II. Write notes on: (5 x 5 = 25)
1. Ludwig’s Angina.
2. Choledochal cyst.
3. Carcinoid tumour.
4. Varicose ulcer.
5. Ganglion.
III. Short Answers on: (5 x 2 = 10)
1. F.N.A.C.
2. A.N.D.I.
3. SSG.
4. Intermittent claudication.
5. Ranula.
SECTION - B
I. Elaborate on : (1 x 15 = 15)
 1. Describe mechanism of injury, clinical features, complications and management
 of supracondylar fracture of the humerus in children.
II. Write notes on: (5 x 5 = 25)
 1. Management principles of open fracture of the mid shaft of tibia with soft tissue loss.
 2. Clinical features and diagnosis of fat embolism following fracture shaft of femur.
 3. Principles of management of established osteosarcoma distal femur.
 4. Clinical features of congenital dislocation of the hip.
 5. Clinical features of radial nerve injury.
III. Short Answers on: (5 x 2 = 10)
1. Clinical features of synovitis of the knee joint
2. Microscopic pathology of Ewing’s Sarcoma
3. Preservation of amputated finger for transfer to a referrel center.
4. X-ray appearance of simple bone cyst.
5. Treatment of chondrosarcoma of the proximal femur.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2013 Question Paper 

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Paper III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS
Q. P. Code : 524083
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 60 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
SECTION - A
I. Elaborate on : (1 x 10 = 10)
 1. Describe in detail the etiopathogenesis clinical features, diagnosis and management of
 Carcinoma Stomach ?
II. Write notes on: (5 x 3 = 15)
1. Post operative Complications of Vagotomy
2. Gallstone ileus
3. Melanoma.
4. Marjolin’s Ulcer.
5. Day Care Surgery.
III. Short Answers on: (5 x 1 = 5)
1. Sclerosing agents.
2. Parkland’s formula for burns.
3. Wilke’s syndrome
4. Saphena varix.
5. Pretibial myxoedema.
SECTION - B
I. Elaborate on : (1 x 10 = 10)
 1. Describe mechanism of injury, clinical features, complications and management of
 colle’s fracture.
II. Write notes on: (5 x 3 = 15)
1. Management of CTEV.
2. Diagnosis of Slipped capital femoral ephiphysis.
3. Diagnosis of Giant cell tumor of proximal tibia.
4. Clinical features of acute compartment syndrome.
5. Clinical features of ulnar nerve palsy.
III. Short Answers on: (5 x 1 = 5)
1. Gibbus deformity.
2. Differential diagnosis of Acute Osteomyelitis.
3. Otolani’s sign.
4. Radiological features of paget’s diseases.
5. Neuropathic joint.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2014 Question Paper

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Paper III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS
Q. P. Code : 524083
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 60 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
SECTION - A
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)
 1. Discuss the Aetiology, pathology and surgical management of sigmoid volvulus.
II. Write notes on: (5 x 3 = 15)
1. Sengstaken tube.
2. Thyroglossal cyst.
3. Early Gastric cancer.
4. Marjolins Ulcer.
5. Epidermal cyst.
III. Short Answers on: (5 x 1 = 5)
1. Trucut Biopsy.
2. Galactocele.
3. Flaps.
4. Haematuria.
5. Raynauds Diseases.
SECTION - B
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)
 1. Describe the mechanism of injury, clinical features, complications and management of
 fracture neck of femur (intra capsular) in a 70 year old man.
II. Write notes on: (5 x 3 = 15)
1. Clinical features and management of Ewing’s tumour.
2. Clinical features & management of acute osteomyelitis of the tibia in a 7 year old child.
3. Clinical features and management of Monteggia fracture dislocation.
4. Clinical features and management of club foot (Congenital talipesequinovarus).
5. Osteo sarcoma..
III. Short Answers on: (5 x 1 = 5)
1. Osteochondroma.
2. Foot drop.
3. Green stick fracture.
4. Use of Plaster of Paris in Orthopaedics.
5. Brodie’s abscess.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2014 Question Paper

THIRD YEAR M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART - II
Paper III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS
Q. P. Code: 524083
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 60 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
Answer Section A & B separately
SECTION - A
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)
 1. Describe in detail the clinical features & management of a multinodular goiter.
II. Write Notes on: (5 x 3 = 15)
 1. Torsion testis.
 2. Cystisarcoma Phyllodes.
 3. Colostomy.
 4. Fibroadenoma breast.
 5. Tuberculous lymphnode.
III. Short Answers on: (5 x 1 = 5)
 1. Management of Frey’s syndrome.
 2. Oesophageal Varices
 3. Neo adjuvant therapy.
 4. QUART.
 5. Flail chest.
SECTION - B
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)
 1. Fractures occurring around the elbow. Discuss the classification, management and
 complications of supracondylar fractures of elbow.
II. Write Notes on: (5 x 3 = 15)
 1. Fracture talus
 2. Osteoid osteoma
 3. Compound fracture
 4. Rheumatoid arthritis
 5. Recurrent dislocation of shoulder.
III. Short Answers on: (5 x 1 = 5)
 1. Torticollis
 2. Carpel tunnel syndrome
 3. Mallet finger
 4. Ilizarov fixator
 5. De Quervain’s disease.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2015 Question Paper

THIRD YEAR M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART II
PAPER III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS
Q.P. Code: 524083
Time: Three hours Maximum : 60 Marks
Answer All Questions
SECTION - A
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)
 1. How is breast cancer staged? What is the treatment of stage I and stage II breast
 cancer.
II. Write notes on: (3 x 5 = 15)
1. Enteral nutrition
2. Mastalgia
3. Predisposing factors and premalignant conditions in oral cavity malignancy
III. Short answers on: (3 x 2 = 6)
1. Acute paronychia
2. Pretibial myxedema
3. Indications for blood transfusion
SECTION – B
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)
1. Discuss the etiology, pathological anatomy and clinical features of Genu Valgum in
a 13 year old girl. Add a note on the management.
II. Write notes on: (3 x 5 = 15)
1. Cubitus varus
2. Septic arthritis
3. Gout
III. Short answers on: (2 x 2 = 4)
1. Ganglion
2. Orthosis
 ******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2015 Question Paper

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
PAPER III – SURGERY INCLUDING ORTHOPAEDICS
Q.P. Code: 524083
Time : Three Hours Maximum : 60 marks
Answer ALL questions
SECTION - A
I. Elaborate : (1 x 10 = 10)
 1. Classify parotid tumours. How will you evaluate parotid swelling and
 what are the principles of managing different malignant parotid tumours?
II. Write notes on : (3 x 5 = 15)
 1. Complications of transfusion.
 2. Radioactive iodine.
 3. Pneumothorax.
III. Short answers on : (3 x 2 = 6)
 1. Cystic hygroma.
 2. Triple assessment of breast lump.
 3. Submucous fibrosis.
SECTION – B
I. Elaborate : (1 x 10 = 10)
 1. Discuss the classification of bone tumours.
 Elaborate on the clinical features, investigations and management of Osteosarcoma.
II. Write notes on : (3 x 5 = 15)
 1. Anterior dislocation of shoulder.
 2. Ulnar claw hand.
 3. Neuropathic joint.
III. Short answers on : (2 x 2 = 4)
 1. Cervical collar.
 2. Tennis elbow.
******* 

Dr. MGR University Question Papers,THIRD M.B.B.S.PART – II,2008 to 2015 Question Papers, Paper II – GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2008 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper II – GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE
Q. P. Code : 524082
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Discuss etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features and management of Parkinsonism.
 2. What are the causes of thrombocytopenia?
 Discuss the clinical features and management of Dengue fever.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Drug induced Renal diseases.
2. Alport’s syndrome
3. Tetany.
4. Classification of Anti-arrhythmic drugs and their doses.
5. Management of Organophosphorous poison patient.
6. Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
7. Common Allergic diseases and methods of Allergy testing.
8. What is thermo-regulation? Add a note on Hypothermia.
9. Clinical features and treatment of Herpes simplex.
 10. Schizophrenia.
III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)
1. Drugs used in Hyper thyroidism.
2. Two side effects of calcium channel blockers.
3. Four causes of oral ulcerations.
4. Four drugs used in Multi Drug Resistant Tuberculosis.
5. Mention four complications of Diabetes Melitus.
6. Two causes of Non-pitting pedal oedema.
7. Dot’s therapy.
8. Four complications of chicken pox.
9. Give two causes of delirium.
 10. Four indications for dialysis (Renal).
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2009 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper II – GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE
Q. P. Code : 524082
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Classify psychoses.
 Discuss clinical features, diagnosis and management of Manic-Depressive Psychosis.
 2. Discuss aetiology, clinical assessment, and management of hypothyroidism.
 Add a note on myxoedema coma.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Management of Scorpion sting.
2. Management of community acquired pneumonia.
3. Leprosy reactions.
4. Tropical eosinophilia.
5. Atrial fibrillation.
6. Hypoglycemia.
7. Phenytoin.
8. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
9. Gout.
 10. Urticaria.
III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)
1. List four metabolic/biochemical features of diabetic ketoacidosis.
2. Mention two indications and two contraindications for upper G I endoscopy.
3. Enumerate four causes of haemoptysis.
4. Mention four Liver Function tests used to assess liver disease.
5. Enumerate four manifestations/complications of severe falciparum malaria.
6. Mention four causes for eosinophilia.
7. Enumerate four indications for antivenin administration.
8. Mention four complications of obesity.
9. Enumerate four clinical features of Parkinson’s disease.
 10. Mention four AIDS defining diseases.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2009 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper II – GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE
Q. P. Code : 524082
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Define and discuss the pathogenesis, clinical features and treatment of bronchial asthma.
 2. Define, classify and discuss in detail about management of hypertension.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Depression.
2. Obsessive compulsive disease.
3. Von willebrand disease.
4. Infective endocarditis.
5. Alcoholic liver disease.
6. Guillain Barre syndrome.
7. Infectious mononucleosis.
8. Diabetes ketoacidosis.
9. Parkin sonisim.
 10. Oral rehydration therapy.
III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)
1. Two causes of acute kidney injury.
2. Two complications of portal hypertension.
3. Two contra indications to beta blockers.
4. Two causes of liver abscess.
5. Obsessive compulsive disorder.
6. Haemorrhagic ascitis.
7. Mention four anti epileptic drugs.
8. Clinical uses of fluroquinolones.
9. Bell’s palsy.
 10. Causes of Bradycardia.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2010 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper II – GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE
Q. P. Code : 524082
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Describe the etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features and management of Guillain
 Barre syndrome.
 2. Enumerate the causes, complication and management of HIV.
 Add a note on ART drugs.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Criteria for diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis.
2. Pemphigus vulgaris.
3. Classify depression, discuss the treatment of depression.
4. Migraine.
5. Folic acid.
6. Arterial blood gases.
7. Computerized tomography in stroke.
8. Management of organophosphorus poison patient.
9. Schizophrenia.
 10. Diagnosis and management of H1N1 infections.
III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)
1. Four drugs used in multi drug resistant tuberculosis.
2. Two causes of non pitting pedal oedema.
3. Dot’s therapy.
4. Herpes zoster.
5. Causes of seronegative arthritis.
6. Third generation of cephalosporins.
7. Water hammer pulse.
8. Plasma pheresis.
9. Stem cell transplant.
 10. Catatonia.
******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2010 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper II – GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE
Q. P. Code : 524082
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Write in detail about the underlying causes, blood gas abnormalities in Type I and
 Type II Respiratory failure and management of both conditions.
 2. Describe the pathology, clinical features, investigations and management of
 sickle cell anaemia.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Skin changes in endocrine diseases.
2. Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome. (SSSS).
3. Non -Metastatic- extra pulmonary manifestations of Bronchogenic
carcinoma.
4. Swine Flu (H1N1 virus).
5. Clinical features and management of Sjogren’s syndrome.
6. Dengue fever.
7. Write about categories of Tuberculosis treatment, DOTS Regimen.
8. Criteria for diagnosis of Rheumatoid arthritis.
9. Notes on Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome. (ARDS).
 10. Clinical features and treatment of Pellagra.
III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)
1. Anti CCP antibody.
2. Familial Mediterranean fever.
3. Cytokines.
4. Micro albuminuria.
5. Post exposure prophylaxis in HIV infection.
6. Risk factors for Nosocomial infection.
7. Dementia.
8. Clostriduim Defficile.
9. Intermediate Syndrome.
 10. Acute phase reactants.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2011 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper II – GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE
Q. P. Code : 524082
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 10 = 20)
 1. Define Pneumonia. Discuss the clinical features, investigations and management of
 community acquired pneumonia.
 2. Classify Epilepsy. Discuss the etiopathogenesis, clinical features of Epilepsy.
 Add a note on management of status Epilepticus.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Maniac depressive psychosis
2. Management of snake bite.
3. Importance of urine examination.
4. Treatment of cerebral malaria.
5. Diagnosis of DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation).
6. Management of H. Pylori related duodenal ulcer.
7. Radiological features of emphysema.
8. Renal manifestations of SLE.
9. Management of Refractory Ascitis.
 10. CSF features of Tuberculous meningitis.
III. Short Answer Questions : (15 x 2 = 30)
1. Four causes of generalized lymphadenopathy.
2. Four predisposing factors for renal stones.
3. Four slow acting anti rheumatic drugs.
4. Four causes of Secondary Hypertension.
5. Four second line ATT drugs.
6. Four drugs causing gynecomastia.
7. Four signs of DKA.
8. Four drugs used in fungal infection.
9. Four causes of massive splenomegaly.
 10. Four pulmonary function tests.
 11. Four types of Psoriasis.
 12. Four features of nephrotic syndrome.
 13. Name four Neurotransmitters.
 14. Name four Haemoglobinopathy.
 15. Stages of Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2011 Question Paper

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper II – GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE
Q. P. Code : 524082
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 10 = 20)
 1. Define stroke. Discuss the etiopathogenesis, clinical features of stroke.
 Outline the management of hemorrhagic stroke.
 2. Discuss the etiopathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and management of
 Non Hodgkin’s Lymphoma.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Polycythemia Vera.
2. Allogenic bone marrow transplant.
3. DMARD.
4. Dissociative disorder.
5. Shingles.
6. Tropical Pulmonary Eosinophilia.
7. Drug resistant Tuberculosis.
8. Insulin analogues.
9. Adrenal crisis.
 10. SAIDH (Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone)
III. Short Answer Questions : (15 x 2 = 30)
1. Four organisms causing urinary tract infection.
2. Four causes of ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome).
3. Blood picture of dimorphic anemia.
4. Four features of Nephrotic Syndrome.
5. Four neuro glycopenic symptoms of hypoglycemia.
6. Four types of sero negative spondyloarthritis.
7. Name four proton pump inhibitors.
8. Four risk factors of gestational diabetes mellitus.
9. Four causes of polyarthritis.
 10. Two causes of diffuse hyperpigmentation.
 11. Four clinical features of Glomerular disease.
 12. Four poor prognostic factors in alcoholic liver disease.
 13. Name two GP (glycoprotein 11b/111a) antagonists.
 14. Name four neurotransmitters.
 15. Four clinical features of carcinoid tumors.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2011 Question Paper

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper II – GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE
Q. P. Code : 524082
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 60 Marks
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 7.5 = 15)
 1. Describe the clinical features, diagnosis and management of Schizophrenia.
 2. Discuss the prevalence, complications and management of Iron deficiency anaemia.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 3 = 30)
1. Blood component therapy
2. Hypertensive emergencies
3. Rheumatoid Arthritis
4. Psychogeriatrics
5. Pediculosis
6. Rabies
7. Drug Resistant Tuberculosis
8. Addison’s crisis
9. Acute severe asthma
 10. Thyroid storm.
III. Short Answers : (15 x 1 = 15)
1. Four clinical features of Gigantism
2. Four symptoms of Myxoedema
3. Name four Proton pump inhibitors
4. Four cardinal features of Renal failure
5. Four causes of Acute Pulmonary Oedema
6. Name four Cytokines
7. Name four precipitating factors for Hepatic encephalopathy
8. Name four Hepatotoxic drugs
9. Four causes of fever with jaundice
 10. Four complications of Lumbar puncture
 11. Four causes of Spondylo arthritis
 12. Four features of Systemic sclerosis
 13. Four drugs used in Heart failure
 14. Features of Hypertensive encephalopathy
 15. Four causes of Obesity.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2012 Question Paper

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Paper II – GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE
Q. P. Code : 524082
Time : 180 Minutes Maximum: 60 Marks
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: Pages Time Marks
 (Max.) (Max.) (Max.)
 1. What are causes of acute renal failure? Discuss the Etio
 Pathogenes, Clinical features and management of acute 16 25 10
 glomerulonephrites.
 2. What are the causes of acute chest pain in a 40 years old man.
 Describe the clinical features, ECG changes, Biochemical
 markers and management of acute Myocardial infarction. 16 25 10
II. Write notes on:
1. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation. 3 8 3
2. Symtoms and signs of increased intra cranial tension. 3 8 3
3. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). 3 8 3
4. Treatment of Scorpion sting. 3 8 3
5. Clinical signs and treatment of Atrial fibrillation. 3 8 3
6. Management of acute severe bronchial asthma. 3 8 3
7. Clinical features of cushing’s syndrome. 3 8 3
8. Neuro psychiatric manifestations of AIDS. 3 8 3
9. Treatment of iron deficiency Anemia. 3 8 3
 10. Indications and contra indications of beta-blockers. 3 8 3
III. Short Answers on:
1. Name four causes of acute confusional state. 1 5 1
2. List four causes of fever with jaundice. 1 5 1
3. List four causes of Coma in a diabetic patient. 1 5 1
4. Name four causes of gynaecomastia. 1 5 1
5. Name four signs of hypo calcemia. 1 5 1
6. Name four causes of hypothermia. 1 5 1
7. List four indications for anticoagulation therapy. 1 5 1
8. List four causes of high volume collapsing pulse. 1 5 1
9. Four clinical features of Gout. 1 5 1
 10. Four clinical signs of snake bite. 1 5 1
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2013 Question Paper

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Paper II – GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE
Q. P. Code : 524082
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 15 = 30)
 1. Describe the approach to clinical recognition and initial therapy of Psychiatric
 Emergencies.
 2. Mention the common bleeding disorders. Discuss in detail any one of them.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Iron deficiency anaemia
2. Regenerative medicine
3. Systemic Lupus Erythramatosis
4. Personality disorders
5. Psoriasis
6. Enteric Fever
7. Atypical Mycobacteria
8. Hyperosmolar non-ketotic state
9. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
 10. Cushing’s syndrome
III. Short Answers on: (10 x 2 = 20)
1. Four clinical features of Acromegaly
2. Four symptoms of Thyrotoxicosis
3. Name four Newer antiepileptic drugs
4. Four cardinal features of Glomerulonephritis
5. Four types of Migraine
6. Name four Cardiac enzymes
7. Name four precipitating factors for Asthma
8. Prognostic factors in Stroke
9. Four causes of fever with arthritis
 10. Four complications of Urinary Catheterisation
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2013 Question Paper

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Paper II – GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE
Q. P. Code : 524082
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 60 MarksAnswer
ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)
 1. Describe clinical features, diagnosis management of dengue fever, write on
 complications and methods of prevention.
 2. Clinical features, classification, diagnostic criteria and management of schizophrenia.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 3 = 30)
1. Management of anaphylaxis.
2. Methods of smoking cessation.
3. Benzodiazepine poisoning.
4. Neurolept malignant syndrome.
5. Wilson’s disease.
6. Eating disorders.
7. HMG co-a reductase inhibitors.
8. Treatment of hyperkalemia.
9. Metabolic syndrome.
 10. How to evaluate a case of hematuria.
III. Short Answers on: (10 x 1 = 10)
1. List four dialysable poisons.
2. List four criteria for alcoholic dependence.
3. List four antiherpes virus agents.
4. List four major jones criteria four rheumatic fever.
5. Whipples triad in hypoglycemia.
6. List four anntiepileptic agents.
7. List four causes of ugi bleed.
8. List four cutaneous manifestations of HIV-AIDS.
9. Triad of renal cell carcinoma.
 10. List the cranial nerves involved in cavernous sinus thrombosis.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2014 Question Paper

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
Paper II – GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE
Q. P. Code : 524082
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 60 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)
1. Explain in detail about the Clinical Features Investigations and Management of
Acute Coronary Syndrome with particular reference to Myocardial infarction?
2. Write in detail about the ill effects of chronic Alcoholism, alcohol dependence and
its management?
II. Write notes on: (10 x 3 = 30)
1. Oncological Emergencies
2. UTI
3. Clinical Features of infective Endocarditis
4. Psoriatic arthritis
5. Graves Disease
6. Classification of Diabetes Mellitus
7. Treatment of Acute Pancreatitis
8. Iron deficiency Anemia
9. Polycythemia Vera
 10. Community Acquired pneumonia
III. Short Answers on: (10 x 1 = 10)
1. Four complications of Subarachnoid hemorrhage
2. Name any two DMARD
3. Enumerate the Major Criteria of Rheumatic Fever
4. Any two second line ATT drugs.
5. Lepra reaction
6. Bells palsy
7. Any two phenothiazine group of drugs
8. 4 Clinical features of cerebellar disease
9. Define TIA and RIND
 10. Upper motor neuron lesion signs.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2014 Question Paper

THIRD YEAR M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART - II
Paper II – GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE
Q. P. Code: 524082
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 60 Marks
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)
 1. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, lab diagnosis, management
 and complications of infectious mononucleosis.
 2. Define somatoform disorders.
 Discuss the aetiology, clinical features of various somatoform disorders and
 their management.
II. Write Notes on: (10 x 3 = 30)
 1. Dressler’s syndrome
 2. Advanced life support
 3. Alport’s syndrome
 4. Classification of psychogenic drugs
 5. Puerperal psychosis
 6. Post exposure prophylaxis of HIV
 7. Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
 8. Fluorosis
 9. Amoebic liver abscess
 10. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
III. Short Answers on: (10 x 1 = 10)
 1. List four important signs of cardiac failure
2. List four newer drugs in the management of Type2 DM
3. List four non-respiratory causes of clubbing
4. List four causes of parotid gland swelling
5. List four important features of diabetic retinopathy
6. List four important causes of End stage renal failure
7. List four important risk factors of venous thromboembolism
8. List the five category of drugs used in HIV treatment
9. List four important causes of Eosinophilia
 10. List four important signs of Grave’s ophthalmopathy.
.
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2015 Question Paper

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
PAPER II - GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE
Q.P. Code: 524082
Time : Three Hours Maximum : 60 marks
Answer ALL questions
I. Elaborate : (2 x 10 = 20)
 1. Describe the clinical features, lab diagnosis, complications and management of
 HIV disease.
 2. Define various Personality disorder. Discuss the etiology, clinical features and
 management of Personality disorder.
II. Write notes on : (6 x 5 = 30)
 1. Mechanical complications of Myocardial infarction.
 2. Diabetic nephropathy.
 3. Delusion.
 4. Post exposure prophylaxis of Rabies.
 5. Sitagliptin.
 6. Hydatid cyst.
III. Short answers on : (5 x 2 = 10)
 1. List two important signs of pulmonary hypertension
 2. List two important drugs used in the management of obesity
 3. List two important causes of thyroid swelling
 4. List two important causes of Nephrolithiasis
 5. List two causes of Pulmonary embolism
*******

Dr. MGR University Question Paper

2015 Question Paper

THIRD M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
PART – II
PAPER II - GENERAL MEDICINE INCLUDING PSYCHOLOGICAL MEDICINE
Q.P. Code: 524082
Time : Three Hours Maximum : 60 marks
Answer ALL questions
I. Elaborate : (2 x 10 = 20)
 1. Elaborate on the aetiopathogenesis, clinical features, lab diagnosis, management and
 complications of Dengue fever.
 2. Define Bipolar disorder – discuss the aetiology and clinical features and various mood
 disorders and their management.
II. Write notes on : (6 x 5 = 30)
1. Thrombolytic agents used in myocardial infarction.
2. Lupus Nephritis.
3. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
4. Chemoprophylaxis of Malaria.
5. Insulin Glargine.
6. Liver flukes.
III. Short answers on : (5 x 2 = 10)
1. List two important signs of infective endocarditis.
2. List two causes of unilateral limb edema.
3. List two causes of papilloedema.
4. List two causes of ureteric stones.
5. List two causes of elevated ASO titre.
*******