Saturday, December 10, 2016

Punjab University OCET M.Sc Biotechnology 2012 Question Paper

OCET-2012 - Punjab University Question Paper
Question Booklet Series : A      Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Answer Sheet Serial No.
Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination.
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16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/A

1. Which of the following amino acids can exist as diastereomers ?
(A) isoleucine and leucine (B) isoleucine and valine
(C) threonine and serine (D) isoleucine and threonine
2. Non-polar amino acid residues are found mostly :
(A) in the core of proteins (B) on the surface of the proteins
(C) on alpha helices (D) in non specific region
3. Glyceraldehyde phosphate is oxidized during glycolysis. What happens to the hydrogen
atom and the electron that are removed during oxidation ?
(A) they oxidize NAD+ (B) they reduce NAD+
(C) they are transferred to pyruvic acid (D) they are eliminated in the form of methane
4. In the electron transport system, the final acceptor of electrons is :
(A) cytochrome b (B) cytochrome a3
(C) oxygen (D) ubiquinone
5. At the end of the Kerb's citric acid cycle, most of the energy removed from the glucose
molecule has been transferred to :
(A) NADH and FADH2 (B) ATP
(C) Oxaloacetic acid (D) Citric acid
6. The high solubility of amino acids in water is due to :
(A) presence of side chain (B) dipolar ion structure
(C) unipolarity (D) hydrophilic nature of amino group
7. The rate of migration of a protein in an SDS-Polyacrylamide gel is not influenced by :
(A) size of the protein (B) charge of the protein
(C) pore size of the gel (D) strength of the electric field
8. A solution of a mixture of proteins is loaded onto a gel filtration column that has a size
exclusion limit of 75,000 Da. The proteins have the following MW in Daltons– A : 11,237
B : 66,000; C:42,000; D:90,000. The proteins will elute from the column in the following
order :
(A) A, B, C, D (B) D, B, C, A
(C) A, C, B, D (D) D, A, B, C
9. A protein structure on eukaryotic chromosomes to which spindle fibers (microtubules)
bind is :
(A) telomere (B) centrosome
(C) kinetochore (D) centromere
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A 4
10. What is the chemical basis of gene imprinting ?
(A) phosphorylation of DNA (B) methylation of DNA
(C) oxidation of DNA (D) glycosylation of DNA
11. The tryptophan biosynthetic operon is an example of :
(A) a positively controlled repressible operon (B) negatively controlled inducible operon
(C) positively controlled inducible operon (D) negatively controlled repressible operon
12. In the pentose phosphate pathway :
(A) Only the C-1 carbon of glucose are oxidized to CO2
(B) All the carbons of glucose are oxidized to CO2
(C) No decarboxylation occurs
(D) C-4 and C-5 of glucose is oxidized to CO2
13. F1F0–ATPase in chloroplasts is located on the :
(A) inner chloroplast membrane with F1 facing the stroma
(B) inner chloroplast membrane with F1 facing the inner-membrane space
(C) thylakoid membrane with F1 facing the stroma
(D) thylakoid membrane with F1 facing the thylakoid lumen
14. In C4 plants, phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase is located in :
(A) cytosol (B) chloroplast
(C) peroxisome (D) mitochondrion
15. Although T-cell and B-cell membranes contain some shared receptors, the receptor
specific for B-cell membrane is :
(A) pokeweed mitogen (B) phyto hemagglutinin
(C) concanavalin A (D) sheep red blood cells
16. The T-cell receptor can bind to antigenic peptides :
(A) only in the free form (B) only when loaded on to MHC molecules
(C) only when bound to hapten (D) only when bound by antibody
17. Abzymes are :
(A) antibodies that have catalytic activities
(B) enzymes that are highly specific like antibodies
(C) also referred to as zymogens
(D) enzymes that hydrolyze antibodies
18. At what [S] is the velocity (V0) of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is 25% of the Vmax ?
(A) 3/4 Km (B) 4 Km
(C) 1/3 Km (D) 1/4 Km
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A 5 [Turn over
19. The reason for the presence of histidine at the active site of enzymes is :
(A) it is the only polar residue with a five-membered ring at the side chain
(B) it can form salt bridges
(C) its pKa is close to 7
(D) it can interact with the substrates better than any other residue
20. Three-dimensional images of the surface of the cells and tissues could be visualized
through :
(A) transmission electron microscope (B) scanning electron microscope
(C) compound microscope (D) florescence microscope
21. A mixture of three peptides A, B and C is loaded in a C18 reverse phase chromatography
column. A mixture of water and acetonitrile is used as the solvent with increased
concentration of the latter in a gradient mode. If the hydrophobicities of the peptides are
in the order A < B < C, the order in which they will elute from the column would be :
(A) A followed by B followed by C (B) B followed by C followed by A
(C) C followed by B followed by A (D) A followed by C followed by B
22. Fluorescence microscopy is based on the ability of certain molecules to :
(A) absorb light of a constant wavelength
(B) absorb light of many different wavelengths
(C) absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a longer wavelength
(D) absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a shorter wavelength
23. Who discovered phagocytosis ?
(A) I.P. Semmeleveis (B) John Needham
(C) Elie Metchnikoff (D) Jules Bordet
24. World Intellectual Property Rights day is celebrated on :
(A) April 26 (B) June 26
(C) October 26 (D) December 28
25. Which one of the following does not belong to Group D enterococci ?
(A) Streptococcus faecalis (B) Streptococcus pyogenes
(C) Streptococcus faecium (D) Streptococcus durans
26. In bacteria, the genes that code for the enzymes of a metabolic pathway are usually
arranged consecutively to form a functional unit called :
(A) an induction system (B) an end-product repression system
(C) an operon (D) a constitutive enzyme system
27. Which of the following is an epigenetic factor for gene expression in eukaryotes ?
(A) recombination (B) DNA methylation
(C) protein phosphorylation (D) DNA protein interaction
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A 6
28. The yeast two-hybrid system is designed to identify which of the following ?
(A) All the components of a multiprotein complex
(B) Human proteins that are required for binding RNA polymerase
(C) Two proteins that directly interact with one another
(D) Two proteins that are involved in the same metabolic pathway
29. siRNA :
(A) forms complex in the spliceosome
(B) recruits histone acetyl transferases to the nucleus
(C) forms a complex with RISC proteins to inhibit translation or cause degradation of
complementary mRNA
(D) is not transmitted to daughter cells after cell division
30. Pinta, a skin disease is caused by :
(A) Treponema carateum (B) Francisella tularensis
(C) Clostridium tetani (D) Pseudomonas mallei
31. Cytokines are not :
(A) able to induce increased blood vessel permeability
(B) antigen-specific
(C) made in response to bacterial antigens
(D) signals from one cell that affects the behavior of another cell
32. Type I hypersensitivity is known as :
(A) anaphylaxis (B) agglutination
(C) the transfusion reaction (D) contact hypersensitivity
33. Which of the following disease is not an autoimmune disease ?
(A) rheumatoid arthritis (B) lupus erythematosis
(C) bovine spongiform encephalitis (D) grave's disease
34. Gell and Coombs classified hypersensitivity into 4 types. IgE mediated hypersensitivity
belongs to :
(A) Type I (B) Type II
(C) Type III (D) Type IV
35. What is the enzyme called that retroviruses carry to convert their RNA genome into a
DNA genome ?
(A) RNA dependent RNA-polymerase (B) replicase
(C) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase (D) reverse transcriptase
36. Transcription in HIV is initiated from :
(A) pol (B) env
(C) gag (D) left LTR
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A 7 [Turn over
37. What type of DNA-binding domains do "true" homeoproteins have ?
(A) helix-turn-helix (B) helix-zinc finger
(C) helix-leucine zippers (D) -ribbon
38. The first successful attempt to test the theory that precursors of biomacromolecules
could be abiotically synthesized under presumed primitive earth conditions was made by :
(A) Darwin (B) Huxley
(C) Miller (D) Oparin
39. In the laboratory, the kind of mRNA triplet oligomer that occurs most readily by
nonenzymatic reactions is (R = purine, Y= pyrimidine)
40. Mycobacterial cell wall is the immune system booster present in :
(A) alum (B) freunds incomplete adjuvant
(C) freunds complete adjuvant (D) lectin
41. You place a cell in a solution. Over a period of time, you notice that the cell shrinks, as if
it is losing water. Which of the following seems likely ?
(A) the solution has more dissolved solutes than the cell does
(B) the solution is an acid
(C) the solution is strong buffer
(D) the solution has fewer dissolved solutes than the cell does
42. Although abscisic acid is not involved in the formation of the abscission layer, it does
have many roles in the life of plants. Which of the following is a function of abscisic acid ?
P. in times of water stress, it causes the stomata to close
Q. it promotes tolerance to stress
R. it induces leaf and flower senescence
S. it induces and maintains the dormancy of seeds
(A) P, Q (B) R, S
(C) P, R, S (D) P, Q, R, S
43. Environmental signals influence the distribution of an auxin in a plant by :
(A) decreasing the cell's sensitivity to the auxin
(B) causing auxin to migrate to the lighted portion
(C) destroying the auxin
(D) causing auxin to migrate into the shaded portion
44. The accumulation of one of the following causes seed dormancy :
(A) abscisic acid (B) cytokinin
(C) ethylene (D) gibberellin
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A 8
45. The coenzyme involved in oxidative decarboxylation is :
(A) thiamine pyrophosphate (B) biotin
(C) NAD+ (D) pyridoxal phosphate
46. International day for Biological Diversity is celebrated on :
(A) 2nd July (B) Ist November
(C) 22nd May (D) 18th June
47. What property of biomembranes is responsible for their self-sealing nature ?
(A) hydrophilicity of the phospholipid head group
(B) presence of protein in biomembranes
(C) presence of cholesterol in biomembranes
(D) hydrophobocity of the fatty acid side chains of phospholipids
48. Colchicine is an inhibitory chemical, which :
(A) prevents microtubule polymerization
(B) prevents microtubule depolymerization
(C) stops the functioning of centriole
(D) prevents attachment of spindle fibre with kinetochore
49. Which of the following protein targeting mechanisms is common for mitochondria and
chloroplast organelles ?
(A) co-translational (B) post-translational
(C) co-translational and post translational (D) de novo protein synthesis
50. A mechanism of genetic exchange that does not occur in a culture medium containing the
enzyme DNase is :
(A) specialized transduction (B) conjugation
(C) transformation (D) generalized transduction
51. A tautomeric shift causing the substitution of one purine for a pyrimidine is called a(n) :
(A) transversion (B) translocation
(C) transition (D) deletion
52. Which of the following chemical mutagens are likely to cause frameshift mutations ?
(A) 5-bromouracil (B) 2-amino purine
(C) acridine orange (D) hydroxylamine
53. Sulpha drugs are effective antibiotics which inhibit the formation of folic acid by acting as
a :
(A) non-competitive inhibitor
(B) competitive inhibitor
(C) uncompetitive inhibitor
(D) irreversible inhibitor
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A 9 [Turn over
54. The production of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation is driven by energy from :
(A) coenzyme A
(B) isomerization of the cytochromes
(C) the formation of NADH
(D) the diffusion of protons from the intermembrane space to the matrix of the mitochondrion
55. Polymerase chain reaction is considered as a revolutionary technology because all of the
following except :
(A) it enables an unlimited production of a DNA fragment in vitro
(B) it is highly sensitive technology
(C) it enables the direct production of a synthetic gene that did not exist before
(D) its experimental protocol is simple
56. Most antibodies are synthesized by the :
(A) central lymphoid organs (B) peripheral lymphoid organs
(C) primary lymphoid organs (D) macrophages
57. Removal of bursa of Fabricius from chicken results in :
(A) a markedly decreased number of circulating T lymphocytes
(B) anemia
(C) a delayed rejection of skin graft
(D) low serum levels of antibodies
58. The largest unit within which gene flow can readily occur is a :
(A) population (B) species
(C) genus (D) phylum
59. Which of the following cells or structures are associated with asexual reproduction in
fungi ?
(A) ascospores (B) basidiospores
(C) conidiophores (D) zygosporangia
60. Energy pyramids of an ecosystem tend to diminish at higher trophic levels. This is because
at each successive level :
(A) the organisms become smaller
(B) energy is stored and therefore less is passed on to the next level
(C) energy is being concentrated in fewer and larger organisms
(D) energy is being lost from one level to the next
61. The phenomenon of genetic drift is most likely to occur in populations that are :
(A) small and inbred (B) undergoing gene flow
(C) allopatric (D) large and panmictic
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A 10
62. Mitochondrial DNA is advantageous for evolutionary studies because :
(A) it is inherited only through the female parent and thus evolves in a way that allows trees of
relationship to be easily constructed
(B) it is inserted into X chromosome
(C) it first appeared in humans and is not found in other animals
(D) it evolves more slowly than the genes in the nucleus
63. The rate controlling step in the synthesis of fatty acids is catalyzed by :
(A) acetyl-CoA carboxylase (B) fatty acid synthase
(C) HMG CoA synthase (D) thiolase
64. Bacillus anthracis capsules consist of which one of the following ?
(A) -glutamyl polypeptide
(B) hyaluronic acid
(C) repeating polysaccharide capsule of glucose and glucuronic acid
(D) sialic acid polymers
65. The bacteria Clostridium botulinum that causes botulism are :
(A) obligate aerobes (B) facultative anaerobes
(C) obligate anaerobes (D) facultative aerobes
66. Which of the following eukaryotic genera contain common cloning host cells ?
(A) Paramecium (B) Saccharomyces
(C) Penicillium (D) Spirogyra
67. Highly cooperative binding of a ligand to multiple binding sites on a macromolecule is
best demonstrated by :
(A) Adair equation (B) Hill plot
(C) Lineweaver-Burk plot (D) Arrhenius plot
68. Listeria monocytogenes shows which of the following characteristics ?
(A) It is an extracellular pathogen (B) It is catalase-negative
(C) It can grow at refrigerator temperatures (4ÂșC) (D) It is gram negative coccus
69. Which of the following is characteristic of Neisseria meningitidis but not Neisseria
gonorrhoeae ?
(A) contains a polysaccharide capsule (B) ferments glucose
(C) is oxidase-positive (D) most isolates show resistance to penicillin
70. A young, alcoholic male develops severe, necrotizing lobar pneumonia. The organism is
Lac+ and produces a luxuriant capsule. The most likely agent is :
(A) Campylobacter fetus (B) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
(C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) Klebsiella pneumonia
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A 11 [Turn over
71. Acid fast staining of gram positive mycobacterium is due to :
(A) presence of dipicolinic acid in cell wall (B) presence of mycolic acid in cell wall
(C) presence of teichoic acid in cell wall (D) presence of diaminopimelic acid in cell wall
72. The cell walls of gram positive bacteria contain two modified sugars, N-acetylglucosamine
(NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM). They are covalently linked by :
(A) alpha-1, 4-glycosidic bond (B) beta-1,6-glycosidic bond
(C) alpha-1, 6-glycosidic bond (D) beta -1, 4-glycosidic bond
73. Many plasmids have ampicillin marker. This implies :
(A) the plasmids contain genes for ampicillin biosynthesis
(B) ampicillin is required for bacterial growth after transformation
(C) the plasmid contains the gene encoding -lactamase
(D) ampicillin is essential for cell survival
74. World AIDS day is observed on :
(A) 5th May (B) 1st December
(C) 26th December (D) 9th January
75. Which one of the following arrangements of the metal ions Na+, K+, Mg2+ and Ca2+ in the
order of decreasing concentrations is correct with respect to a quiescent mammalian cell ?
(A) Na+, K+, Mg2+, Ca2+ (B) K+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+
(C) Mg2+, K+, Na+ , Ca2+, (D) Ca2+, Mg2+, K+, Na+

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