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This website covers previous years question papers of various universities and colleges in India. Moreover, the information on admission to various courses from various universities/institutes/colleges are also available. Research paper questions are also updated from time to time. Also the latest teaching faculty plus teachers jobs, Government jobs, Banking Jobs, and other jobs are regularly updated to help jobless candidates. Admit cards of various recruitment of Govt organisation are updated. Search your terms using the sejavascript:void(0)arch box provided.

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Saturday, February 22, 2014

Chhattisgarh Swami Vivekanand Technical University (CSVTU) B.Pham 4th Semester (Backlog) Exam 2013 and M.Pharm (Regular) 1st Sem Results Declared today (22 February 2014)

Chhattisgarh Swami Vivekanand Technical University (CSVTU): B.Pharm and M.Pharm Results 2014:

Are you waiting for CSVTU results 2014 for the exams conducted in the year 2013? Chhattisgarh Swami Vivekanand Technical University (CSVTU) has declared today results for B.Pharm backlog 4th semester 2013 exam results along with M.Pharm regular 1st sem first semester 2013 exam results. Results have been announced around 5:00 pm. If you are need of such results, then check your results at the following servers.

B.Pharmacy 4 sem, fourth sem backlog results at the following three servers. Just copy paste the URL into your browser.

Server 1: http://chhattisgarh.indiaresults.com/csvtu/

Server 2: http://schools9.com/

Server 3: http://www.exametc.com/university.php?show=oun&univ=97

M.Pharmacy I sem, 1st sem, first sem regular 2013 exam results at the following three servers:

Server 1: http://chhattisgarh.indiaresults.com/csvtu/

Server 2: http://schools9.com/

Server 3: http://www.exametc.com/university.php?show=oun&univ=97

Download the revaluation form for M.Pharm here http://csvtu.ac.in/pdf_doc/Retotalling_Form.pdf and last date to submit the completed from is 4th March 2014.

For B.Pharm backlog, only the retotal is allowed upto 4th March 2014. Download the form using the link provided below: http://csvtu.ac.in/pdf_doc/Retotalling_Form.pdf

For more details, visit the university website at http://csvtu.ac.in/results_APR_MAY_2012.htm

Monday, February 17, 2014

Anna University civil engineering 1st to 8th semester regulation 2008 curriculum and syllabus

Anna University 1st first I-2nd second II-3rd third III-4th fourth IV-5th fifth V-6th sixth VI-7th seventh VII-8th eighth VIII semester curriculum and syllabus for civil engineering 

Dear students,
Searching for anna university civil engineering syllabus for 1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th 7th 8th semester curriculum and syllabus regulation 2008 ? Hereunder provided is the link to download your syllabus.

Anna University 1st first I semester curriculum and syllabus for civil engineering
Anna University 2nd second II semester curriculum and syllabus for civil engineering
Anna University 3rd third III semester curriculum and syllabus for civil engineering
Anna University 4th fourth IV semester curriculum and syllabus for civil engineering
Anna University 5th fifth V semester curriculum and syllabus for civil engineering
Anna University 6th sixth VI semester curriculum and syllabus for civil engineering
Anna University 7th seventh VII semester curriculum and syllabus for civil engineering
Anna University 8th eighth VIII semester curriculum and syllabus for civil engineering

Click here to download first semester
Click here to download 2nd to 8th semester

Saturday, February 15, 2014

Business Economics, B.Com first year, Bangalore University 2012 Question Paper

Bangalore University Model Sample Previous year old Question papers and Question Bank: B.Com 1st year Business Economics 2012:-

Looking for old question papers of Bangalore University ? Here is a question paper for B.Com first year for the subject Business Economics, asked in the year 2012 university exam.


I year B.Com Examination
(97-98 Scheme)
Commerce
Business Economics
Time: 3 hours
Max. Marks: 100
Instruction: Answer should be written either in English or Kannada

SECTION-A
Answer any eight of the following an about 4 lines each. Each question carries 2 marks (2 x 8 = 16)

1. a) How business economics is different from Economics ?
    b) What is consumer Surplus
    c) What are Giffen Goods
    d) What do you understand by balance of payment
    e) What is 'Dumping'?
    f) What is personnel income ?
    g) What are the motive of holding cash ?
    h) What are producer's goods ?
    i) What is demand forecasting ?
    j) State the law of demand.
    k) What is national income ?
    l) What do you mean by monopolistic competition ?

SECTION-B
Answer any three questions not more than 30 lines each. Each question carries 8 marks. (8 x 3 = 24)

2. What is perfect competition ? What are its features ?
3. Explain the objectives of business economics
4. What is pricing policy ? Explain various considerations in pricing policy.
5. From the data given below, find trend values for each year using the method of least square and estimate the annual sales for the year 2012.
Years: 2007     2008      2009      2010       2011
Sales  :  100       120       140         160       175
(in lakhs)

6. What is BEF ? Calculate BEP and margin of safety from the following data:
Sales: 1000 units
Sales in Rs. 50,000/-
Total fixed costs Rs. 15,000/-
Total Variable costs Rs. 12,00/-

SECTION-C
Answer any four questions. Each question carries 15 marks

7. Discuss the role and responsibilities of a business economist
8. What is price discrimination ? Explain various kinds of price discriminations and the essential conditions for it.
9. What is demand forecasting ? Explain different methods of demand forecasting.
10. Distinguish between balance of trade and balance of payment. Explain the measures of correcting adverse balance of payment.
11. What is business cycle ? Explain the important phases of business cycles.
12. What is public expenditure ? What are the causes of increase in public expenditure ?

 



Gujarat Technological University: B.E eighth semester Helicopter Engineering, subject code 110102 question paper 2013

Gujarat Technological University Old Model Previous Latest Sample University Questions and Question Bank: 110102 Helicopter Engineering 2013 University Question Paper:

Here is a question paper titled "Helicopter Engineering" the subject code, 180102 to the students searching for model and previous years question bank for Gujarat Technological University. It is originally asked in the year 2013 for B.E eighth semester examination by Gujarat Technological University. Read and take a copy of this question paper for your examination purpose.

Seat No.: ________ Enrolment No.___________
GUJARAT TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY BE - SEMESTER–VIII- EXAMINATION –SUMMER 2013 
Subject Code: 180102  Date: 13-05-2013 
Subject Name: Helicopter Engineering 
Time: 10.30 am - 01.00 pm Total Marks: 70 
Instructions: 
1. Attempt all questions. 
2. Make suitable assumptions wherever necessary. 
3. Figures to the right indicate full marks. 

Q.1 (a) A tandem rotor helicopter having a diameter of 12 m and weighing 25,000 kg is operating at a Figure of Merit of 0.7. Find out the power required to hover and also the wake velocity. Comment on the wake velocity obtained, whether it is high or low and what will be its effect. 07 
(b) Draw a very clear picture of the velocity profile in hover and forward flight for the following flight condition: 
V = 400m/sec, R = 12m and Ω =360 rpm. Write point-wise, the characteristics of both these velocity profiles. 07 

Q.2 (a) Explain the requirements of an airfoil to be used in a rotor. Describe the concept of boundary layer on an airfoil surface. 07 
(b) Describe blade element theory in forward flight with a neat sketch of the forces/velocities acting on the blade. 07 
OR 
(b) Describe blade element theory in hover and axial flight with a neat sketch of the forces/velocities acting on the blade. 07 

Q.3 (a) Explain the importance of Radius, Twist and Taper in a helicopter rotor blade from the perspective of conceptual design. 07 
(b) Describe momentum theory in axial climb along with all its assumptions and a neat sketch 07 
OR 
Q.3 (a) Describe the flow conditions around the rotor in axial flight, in detail and with neat sketches. 07 
(b) Describe momentum theory in axial descent along with all its assumptions and a neat sketch 07 

Q.4 (a) State True or False and Justify (Only True or False is not to be stated): 
1. Sikorsky S64A is a US make helicopter 
2. Low disc loading leads to better hover efficiency 
3. Chord of blade varies from 1.5 m to 3 m 
4. 1 KNOT = 0.6 m/sec 
5. Root-cutout normally varies in the range of 0 to 15 percent 
6. Profile power losses are more at high speed 
7. Range of diameter in a helicopter main rotor varies from 20 m to 50 m   07 


(b) Describe momentum theory in hover along with all its assumptions and  limitations. Explain Bernoulli’s theorem with equation. Draw neat sketches to support the theory. 07 
OR 
Q.4 (a) State True or False and Justify (Only True or False is not to be stated): 
1. Combat helicopters have low disk loading 
2. It is not convenient to fly a helicopter at very high speeds because of engine limitations 
3. Ground effect leads to a requirement in power reduction 
4. High pitching moment is favorable for airfoils used in main rotors 
5. Power coefficient is higher than torque coefficient in a helicopter rotor 
6. Rotor disk loading is given by T/A 
7. Momentum theory over-estimates the required power 07 


Q.4 (b) Describe momentum theory in forward flight along with all its assumptions and limitations. Explain Bernoulli’s theorem with equation. Draw neat sketches to support the theory. 07 

Q.5 (a) Write a short note on (Draw neat sketches wherever relevant): 
1. Coping up with power failure 
2. Ground effect 07 
(b) Explain different main rotor configurations and explain their advantages and disadvantages. Draw a schematic of all these main rotor configurations 07 
OR 
Q.5 (a) Write a short note on (Draw neat sketches wherever relevant): 

1. Coriolis effect 
2. Explain Reverse flow region 07 
(b) Sketch the degrees of freedom of a rotor blade. Explain and expand these degrees of freedom and show how they behave in steady state. Explain the meaning of steady state. Explain the physical significance of the terms occurring in the equation of steady state.


All India Institute of Medical Science, AIIMS admission notification 2014-15

All India Institute of Medical Science:- Admission Notification for M.B.B.S courses:

Are you waiting for the release of admission notification from AIIMS ? Hereunder, you can find the details of latest notification from AIIMS for its MBBS admission for the coming academic year. Learn here how to apply for the course, know eligibility details and important dates to remember. Read on to grab the information.

All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi has advertised to invite applications for admission into its MBBS Course of AIIMS, New Delhi and six other AIIMS in Patna, Bhopal, Jodhpur, Bhubaneshwar, Rishikesh and Raipur for the next academic year 2014.

Eligibility:
The candidates are required to have passed or appearing for 12th class examination or its equivalent with the subjects of English, Physics, Chemistry and Biology having 60% marks in total. The minimum marks prescribed for SC/ST candidates are only 50%.

How to Apply:
Interested and eligible students can apply only online. The online registration will be open only from 17th February, 2014. The students can use of this link to register online. http://mbbs.aiimsonline.in/StudentLogin.aspx

Important Date:
Last date for submission of online application form: 17 March 2014

For officially advertised notice, students are requested to view this PDF file.

Anna university 1st sem January 2014 results without entering date of birth

Anna University Result 2014: 1st Semester B.E/B.Tec and M.E/M.Tech/MCA/MBA result January 2014, Check result without Date of Birth (DOB)

Anna University result has been released recently on 10th February 2014. Without entering date of birth, result was not able to check. Students want to check their classmates result too. But dob is needed for checking others result. Now, that is possible as Anna University updated its results on its main server. Follow below links to check your result and friends result without entering date of birth, DOB.

Affliated Colleges - UG/PG Programmes - Results of January 2014 Examinations (Anna University, Chennai and Erstwhile Anna University of Technology, Madurai) - (Grade System)

Affliated Colleges - UG/PG Programmes - Results of January 2014 Examinations (Erstwhile Anna University of Technology, Coimbatore) - (Grade System) 

Affliated Colleges - UG/PG Programmes - Results of January 2014 Examinations (Erstwhile Anna University of Technology, Tiruchirappalli and Tirunelveli) - (Grade System)

Affliated Colleges - UG/PG Programmes - Results of January 2014 Examinations - (Mark System)

Live Telecast of Australia and South Africa 2014 test series, Live Online streaming, Live Commentaries, Updates

Cricket Schedule, Live TV Channels, Online Streaming, Ball by Ball Commentaries and updates: Australia Vs South Africa Test series 2014. 


Are you looking for latest information, live action on both TV channels and Online about the ongoing series, Australia tour to South Africa, test series ? You cab get all latest information regarding this test series hereunder. Have a look below to read.

Australia Vs South Africa Test series, 3 test cricket series 2014:

The cricket fans are very much eager to watch this test series. Australia earlier has finished a white wash  on England earlier. So they are very confident whereas South Africa team is also very good in batting and bowling. The two teams has strong and the match will be very interesting to both the fans. South Africa is currently No. 1 in ICC rankings whereas Australia in 3rd Position. India holds the second ranking.

Match Schedule: Australia Vs South Africa:

3 tests are going to held. The list is given under,
  1. 1st test cricket: 12th Feb .2014 to 16th Feb. 2014, (Wed - Sun), Venue: SuperSport Park, Centurion
  2. 2nd test cricket: 20th Feb. 2014 to 24th Feb. 2014, (Thursday - Monday), Venue: St George's Park, Port Elizabeth
  3. 3rd test cricket: 01st March 2014 to 05th March 2014, (Sat - Wed), Venue: Newlands, Cape Town

Live telecast TV Channels of Australia Vs South Africa:

You can watch the live action on Ten Sports Channels and Sky Sports HD2 and Fox Sports TV channels are telecasting the test series across world. Everyone can watch the live telecast on these TV channels.

Online Streaming Websites, Ball by Ball commentary updates for Australia Vs South Africa test series:

  • http://www.ustream.tv/channel/australia-vs-south-africa-live-test-match-cricket-online
  • http://cricket.watchcriclive.com/
  • www.CricUnlimited.com
  • http://www.abc.net.au/sport/cricket/live-streaming/
  • http://www.cricket.com.au/live
  • http://www.wencric.com
  • live.tensports.com
Ball by Ball commentary updates:
There are lot of websites offering the ball by ball updates. Some of them are listed below:
  • cricket.yahoo.com
  • www.cricinfo.com
  • www.superspot.com
  • www.espncricinfo.com
  • www.sport24.co.za
  • www.foxsports.com.au
  • www.cricketcountry.com
  • www.sportsbun.com
  • www.livecricket1.com
  • live.cricket.com.pk

Team players for both Australia and South Africa Tests:

Australia: Michael Clarke (Captain), Jackson Bird, Brad Haddin, Ryan Harris, Moises Henriques, Mitchell Johnson, Nathan Lyon, Chris Rogers, Peter Siddle, Steven Smith, David Warner, James Faulkner, Shane Watson, Alex Doolan, Shaun Marsh and James Pattinson.

South Africa: Graeme Smith (Captain), Hashim Amla, JP Duminy, AB de Villiars, F Du Plessis, Dean Elger, Rory Klevinveldt, Wayne Parnell, Alviro Petersen, Robin Peterson, Vernon Philander, Dale Steyn, Thami Tsolekile, Ryan McLaren and Morne Morkel.

ICC rankings of two teams: Australia: 3 and South Africa 1.







University of Delhi: Business English 3 year B.Com 2013 Question Paper

University of Delhi Model, Sample, Old, Previous, Latest Question Papers, Question Bank: B.Com third (3rd) year, Business English 2013:

Are you studying under University of Delhi ? Searching for old, model, previous years question papers, question bank ? Here is provided the latest 2013 question paper for third year B.Com, the subject Business English. Download the question paper from below and use it for your upcoming exams to score good marks.

University of Delhi
Business English
Year of examination: 2013
Course: Bachelor of Commerce, Third Year
Total Marks: 75
Exam duration: 3 Hours

Attempt all questions
Do all parts of a question together




    



Friday, February 14, 2014

ICET-2014 Notification for MBA and MCA admissions by Kakatiya University, Warangal in Andhra Pradesh

ICET-2014 Notification for MBA and MCA admissions in Andhra Pradesh

Looking for ICET 2014 notification for coming academic year 2014-15 ? Kakatiya University, Warangal, has released an Integrated Common Entrance Test (ICET) notification for admission into MBA and MCA courses of all Universities in Andhra Pradesh and their affiliated colleges. This test is to be conducted on behalf of Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education, Hyderabad.

Eligibility:
The applying candidate should have the following eligibility:

MBA: The candidate should have passed Bachelors Degree Examination of minimum three years duration with at least 50% marks in the qualifying examination.

MCA: The candidate should have passed Bachelors Degree examination of minimum three years duration with at least 50% marks in the qualifying examination with Mathematics at 10+2 level.

How to Apply:
The candidates are requested to submit the application online which starts from 24th February 2014.

Application Fees: Need to pay an application fee of Rs. 250/-

Important Dates :
Submission and registration of online applications: 24 Feb. 2014.
Last date for online submission without late fee: 04 April 2014
Last date for online submission with late fee of Rs.500: 15 April 2014
Last date for online submission with late fee of Rs.2000: 25 April 2014
Date and time of examination: 23 May 2014

For more details, you are requested to check out this link, apicet.org.in/Content/frmHome.aspx

Gauhati University: B.A Political Science 2007 Indian Political System and Social Change Question paper

Are you looking for Gauhati University old question papers ? You can find several question papers for various streams like Business administration, Bachelor of Arts, Bachelor of science, Engineering, Medical courses, etc in this blog. Following is one of the question paper from Gauhati university for B.A Political science originally asked in the year 2007. Just have a copy of this question paper to use for your upcoming exams.



Gauhati University
B.A Political Science, 2007
Paper III: Indian Political System and Social Change Question paper
POLITICAL SCIENCE
THIRD PAPER
(Indian Political System and Social Change)
Full Marks: 80
Time: 3 hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks for the questions
Write the answers to the two Halves in separate books

1. Answer any two of the following:
a) Comment on the salient features of Indian political system with special reference to its ideological aspects. 12
b) Discuss the role of Fundamental Rights in ensuring and promoting individual liberty. What types of legal remedies are guaranteed by the Constitution in cases of violation of Fundamental Rights? 6+6
c) Discuss the ways in which the legislature can exercise control over the working of bureaucracy in India. 12
d) Explain the significance of Panchayati Raj institutions in bringing about democratic centralization in the context of 73rd Amendment of Indian Constitution. 12

2. Write short notes on (any two) 5×2=10
a) Regional Political Parties
b) Role of Planning Commission
c) Role of Opposition in Parliament
d) Supreme Court of India
3. Choose the correct answer: l×6=6
a) Which article of Indian Constitution contains special provisions for the State of Jammu and Kashmir?
(i) Article 14
(ii) Article 112
(iii) Article 370
(iv) Article 395
b) Which district of Assam was transferred to Pakistan in 1947 as a result of partition of India?
(i) Mymensingh
(ii) Rangpur
(iii) Chittagong
(iv) Sylhet
c) Who was the first Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(i) Jawaharlal Nehru .
(ii) Dr. S Radhakrishnan
(iii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(iv) C Rajagopalachari
d) Who is the author of the book entitled The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation?
(i) Rajni Palme Dutt
(ii) Granville Austin
(iii) Durga Das Basu
(iv) Maulana A K Azad
e) Who appoints the Judges of High Courts in India?
(i) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(ii) Governor of the State
(iii) President of India
(iv) Vice-President of India
f) Which. of the following States in India has Legislative Council (Bidhan Parishad) in addition to Legislative Assembly (Bidhan Sabha)?
(i) Assam
(ii) Meghalaya
(iii) Bihar
(iv) Arunachal. Pradesh

4. Answer any two of the following:
a) Evaluate the role of social movements in effecting social change. Illustrate with examples in the context of India. 8+4
b) Examine the changes in Indian family system resulting from the process of modernization. 12
c) What is urbanization? Examine the problems of urban life in India. 4+8
d) Examine the process of social change among tribals in India with special reference to North-Eastern region. 12
5. Write short notes on (any two): 5×2=10
a) Role of Elites in Indian society
b) Conditions of Harijans
c) Role of Education in social change
d) Economic inequalities in Indian society
6. Choose the correct answer: 1×6=6
(a) Which article of the Constitution prohibits practice of 'untouchability' in India?
(i) Article 30
(ii) Article 1 7
(iii) Article 356 (iv) Article 40
(b) Which of the following tribes is characterized by 'matrilineal' system?
(i) Khasis
(ii) Nagas
(iii) Mizos
(iv) Santhal
(c) In which year did the Central Government appoint Minorities Commission in India?
(i) 1951
(ii) 1961
(iii) 1978
(iv) 1989
(d) Who was the founder of Arya Samaj?
(i) Swami Vivekananda
(ii) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(iii) Mahatma Gandhi
(iv) Raja R~ Mohan Roy
(e) Who gave the call for 'total revolution' in India?
(i) Acharya Vinobha Bhave
(ii) Gopinath Bordoloi
(iii) Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy
(iv) Jai Prakash Narain
(f) Who wrote the book Hind Swaraj?
(i) B R Anibedkar
(ii) Subhas Chandra Bose
(iii) Mahatma Gandhi
(iv) Jawaharlal Nehru

Tuesday, February 11, 2014

Anna University 1st sem Jan 2014 result for B.E/B.Tech published

Dear students,
It is informed you that Anna University has just published the first semester (1st sem) B.E/B.Tech Nov/Dec 2013/Jan 2014 exams results yesterday 10th Feb. 2014. If you are student of first year B.E/B.Tech in Anna University affiliated colleges, then the time has came to check your result now. The first semester exam result is common for all branches. This Jan 2014 results are only for those students coming under Regulation 2008 and afterwards. The results for regulation 2001 candidates will be published later. Click the following link to check out your result and get additional information on revaluation of your failed subjects if any.

Click here to check Anna University B.E/B.Tech 1st semester January 2014 results.

Monday, February 10, 2014

AE 1401 Avionics question bank with answers

Are you looking for question bank for the subject "AE 1401 AVIONICS" ? Here is the collection of 2 mark questions with answers. This will be very useful for the B.E Aeronautical Engineering students under Anna University as well as other university students. Read below to find the collection of question bank.

1. What is avionics?
Avionics means "aviation electronics". It comprises electronic systems for use on aircraft, artificial satellites and spacecraft, comprising communications, navigation and the display and management of multiple systems.

2. Explain the advantage of using avionics in civil aircraft.
• Reducing the crew workload by automating tasks.
• The reduction in weight can be translated to increased passengers or long range.
• To enable the flight crew to carry out the aircraft mission safely and efficiently.
• All weather operation and reduction in maintenance costs.

3. Explain the advantage of using avionics in military aircraft.
• A single seat fighter or strike aircraft is lighter and Costs less than an equivalent two seat version.
• Elimination of the second crew member (navigator/observer/crew member) results in reduction in training costs.
• Improved aircraft performance and control and handling and reduction in maintenance costs
• Secure communication.

4. Give the general advantage of Avionics over the conventional aircraft system.
• Increased safety
• Air traffic control requirements
• All weather operation
• Reduction in fuel consumption
• Improved aircraft performance and control and handling and reduction in maintenance costs

5. Define the usage of avionics in space systems.
• Fly-by-wire control systems were used for vehicle attitude and translation control.
• Sensors used around the aircraft for data acquisition.
• Redundancy system and autopilot.
• On board computers used in satellites for processing.

6. Explain “illities” of Avionics system.
• Capability
• Reliability
• Maintainability
• Certificability

• Survivability(military)
• Availability
• Susceptibility
• vulnerability
• Life cycle cost(military) or cost of ownership(civil)
• Technical risk
• Weight & power

7. Give various systems where the avionics used in aircrafts.
• Aircraft intercoms
• Wide Area Augmentation System
• Terrain awareness and warning system
• Ground proximity warning system
• Aircraft collision avoidance systems
• Display systems
• Traffic Collision Avoidance System

8. Explain the steps involved in design of avionics system.
• The three stages are:
i. Conceptual design - What will it do?
ii. Preliminary design - How much will it weigh?
iii. Detailed design - How many parts will it have?

9. What are digital computers?
A device that processes numerical information; more generally / any device that manipulates symbolic information according to specified computational
procedures is called as digital computers. The term digital computer or simply, computer embraces calculators, computer workstations, control computers (controllers) for applications such as domestic appliances and industrial processes.

10. What is a volatile memory and give examples?
Volatile memory, also known as volatile storage, is computer memory that requires power to maintain the stored information, unlike non-volatile memory which does not require a maintained power supply. It has been less popularly known as temporary memory. Most forms of modern random access memory (RAM) are volatile storage.

11. What is aliasing?
In computing, aliasing describes a situation in which a data location in memory can be accessed through different symbolic names in the program. Thus, modifying the data through one name implicitly modifies the values associated to all aliased names, which may not be expected by the programmer. As a result, aliasing makes it particularly difficult to understand, analyze and optimize programs. Aliasing analyses intend to make and compute useful information for understanding aliasing in programs.

12. Differentiate between volatile and non volatile memories.
Volatile memory: The data is lost on reboot, you will lost all of your data when your electricity go out.. This is the ram memory. Random-access-memory.

Non-volatile memory: The data is saved to a hard drive or flash drive, or it could be a hard coded chip. This is rom memory. Read-only-memory. All data that stored in this type of memory will retain when you shutdown your computer.

13. What is microprocessor?
A complex microcircuit (integrated circuit) or set of such chips that carries out the functions of the processor of an information technology system; that is, it contains a control unit (and clock), an arithmetic and logic unit, and the necessary registers and links to main store and to peripherals.

14. Explain the registers of microprocessor?
In computer architecture, a processor register (or general purpose register) is a small amount of storage available on the CPU whose contents can be accessed more quickly than storage available elsewhere. Typically, this specialized storage is not considered part of the normal memory range for the machine. Processor registers are at the top of the memory hierarchy, and provide the fastest way for a CPU to access data.

15. What is Accumulator?
In a computer's central processing unit (CPU), an accumulator is a register in which intermediate arithmetic and logic results are stored. Without a register like an accumulator, it would be necessary to write the result of each calculation (addition, multiplication, shift, etc.) to main memory, perhaps only to be read right back again for use in the next operation. Access to main memory is slower
than access to a register like the accumulator because the technology used for the large main memory is slower (but cheaper) than that used for a register.

16. Explain the types of memories?
Volatile memory, also known as volatile storage, is computer memory that requires power to maintain the stored information, unlike non-volatile memory which does not require a maintained power supply. It has been less popularly known as temporary memory. Most forms of modern random access memory (RAM) are volatile storage, including dynamic random access memory (DRAM) and static random access memory (SRAM)Non-volatile memory, nonvolatile memory, NVM or non-volatile storage, is computer memory that can retain the stored information even when not powered. Examples of non-volatile memory include read-only memory, flash memory,
most types of magnetic computer storage devices (e.g. hard disks, floppy disks, and magnetic tape), optical discs, and early computer storage methods such as paper tape and punch cards.

17. Give few avionics architecture.
• First Generation Architecture ( 1940’s –1950’s)
i. Disjoint or Independent Architecture ( MiG-21)
ii. Centralized Architecture (F-111)
• Second Generation Architecture ( 1960’s –1970’s)
i. Federated Architecture (F-16 A/B)
ii. Distributed Architecture (DAIS)
iii. Hierarchical Architecture (F-16 C/D, EAP)
• Third Generation Architecture ( 1980’s –1990’s)
i. Pave Pillar Architecture ( F-22)
• Fourth Generation Architecture (Post 2005)
i. Pave Pace Architecture- JSF
ii. Open System Architecture

18. Explain Federated architecture.
In FEDERATED ARCHITECTURE Data conversion occurs at the system level and the datas are send as digital form – called Digital Avionics Information Systems(DAIS). Several standard data processors are often used to perform a variety of Low – Bandwidth functions such as navigation, weapon delivery , stores management and flight control Systems are connected in a Time – Shared
Multiplex Highway. Resource sharing occurs at the last link in the information chain – via controls and displays.

19. Explain centralized architecture.
As the digital technology evolved, a central computer was added to integrate the information from the sensors and subsystems. The central computing complex is connected to other subsystems and sensors through analog, digital, synchro and other interfaces. When interfacing with computer a variety of different transmission methods, some of which required signal conversion (A/D) when
interfacing with computer. Signal conditioning and computation take place in one or more computers in a LRU located in an avionics bay ,with signals transmitted over one way data bus. Data are transmitted from the systems to the central computer and the DATA CONVERSION TAKES PLACE AT THE CENTRAL COMPUTER.

 20. How is federated architecture different from centralized architecture?
In FEDERATED ARCHITECTURE Data conversion occurs at the system level and the data are send as digital form – called Digital Avionics Information Systems (DAIS). It is fully digital.
In centralized architecture Data conversion takes place at the central computer. Analog wires are used.

21. Explain MIL-STD 1553B components?
• BUS CONTROLLER
• BUS MONITOR
• REMOTE TERMINAL
• TRANSMISSION MEDIA

22. Explain the status word of MIL-STD 1553B.
Status words are transmitted by the RT in response to command messages from the BC and consist of:
• 3 bit-time sync pattern (same as for a command word)
• 5 bit address of the responding RT
• 11 bit status field
• 1 parity check bit.
The 11 bits in the status field are used to notify the BC of the operating condition of the RT and subsystem.

23. Explain the bus controller and Remote terminal of MIL-STD 1553B.
There is only one Bus Controller at a time on any MIL-STD-1553 bus. It initiates all message communication over the bus. A Remote Terminal can be used to provide:
• An interface between the MIL-STD-1553B data bus and an attached subsystem
• A bridge between a MIL-STD-1553B bus and another MIL-STD-1553B bus.

24. Explain ARINC 429 standard.
ARINC 429 is the technical standard for the predominant avionics data bus used on most higher-end commercial and transport aircraft. It defines the physical and electrical interfaces of a two-wire data bus and a data protocol to support an aircraft's avionics local area network.

25. Explain ARINC 629 standard.
ARINC 629 is a multi-transmitter protocol where many units share the same bus. It was a further development of ARINC 429 especially designed for the Boeing 777

26. What is an auto pilot?
An autopilot is a mechanical, electrical, or hydraulic system used to guide a vehicle without assistance from a human being. Most people understand an autopilot to refer specifically to aircraft, but self-steering gear for ships, boats, space craft and missiles are sometimes also called by this term.

27. What is brick walling or partitioning in avionics architecture?
The purpose of partitioning is fault containment: a failure in one partition must not propagate to cause failure in another partition. The function in a partition depends on the correct operation of its processor and associated peripherals, and partitioning is not intended to protect against their failure - this can be achieved only by replicating functions across multiple processors in a fault-tolerant
manner.

28. Define Glass cockpit.
A glass cockpit is an aircraft cockpit that features electronic instrument displays. Where a traditional cockpit relies on numerous mechanical gauges to display information, a glass cockpit uses several displays driven by flight management systems, that can be adjusted to display flight information as needed. This simplifies aircraft operation and navigation and allows pilots to focus only on the
most pertinent information. They are also popular with airline companies as they usually eliminate the need for a flight engineer. In recent years the technology has become widely available in small aircraft.

29. Define plasma panel.
A plasma display panel (PDP) is a type of flat panel display common to large TV displays (32" inches or larger). Many tiny cells between two panels of glass hold a mixture of noble gases. The gas in the cells is electrically turned into a plasma which then excites phosphors to emit light.

30. Differentiate LED & LCD.
LEDs are based on the semiconductor diode. When the diode is forward biased (switched on), electrons are able to recombine with holes and energy is released in the form of light. This effect is called electroluminescence and the color of the light is determined by the energy gap of the semiconductor. LEDs present many advantages over traditional light sources including lower energy consumption, longer lifetime, improved robustness, smaller size and faster switching. However, they are relatively expensive and require more precise current and heat management than traditional light sources.

A liquid crystal display (LCD) is a thin, flat panel used for electronically displaying information such as text, images, and moving pictures Among its major features are its lightweight construction, its portability, and its ability to be produced in much larger screen sizes than are practical for the construction of cathode ray tube (CRT) display technology. Its low electrical power consumption
enables it to be used in battery-powered electronic equipment. It is an electronically-modulated optical device made up of any number of pixels filled with liquid crystals and arrayed in front of a light source (backlight) or reflector to produce images in color or monochrome.

31. Explain CRT and its usage in aircraft displays.
The cathode ray tube (CRT) is a vacuum tube containing an electron gun (a source of electrons) and a fluorescent screen, with internal or external means to accelerate and deflect the electron beam, used to create images in the form of light emitted from the fluorescent screen.

32. What is meant by DVI?
The Digital Visual Interface (DVI) is a video interface standard designed to provide very high visual quality on digital display devices such as flat panel LCD computer displays and digital projectors. It was developed by an industry consortium, the Digital Display Working Group (DDWG). It is designed for carrying uncompressed digital video data to a display.

33. What are MFD and its significance in Aircraft?
A Multi-function display (MFD) is a small screen (CRT or LCD) in an aircraft surrounded by multiple buttons that can be used to display information to the pilot in numerous configurable ways. Often an MFD will be used in concert with a Primary Flight Display. MFDs are part of the digital era of modern planes or helicopter. The first MFD were introduced by airforces. The advantage of an MFD over analog display is that an MFD does not consume much space in the cockpit.
Many MFDs allow the pilot to display their navigation route, moving map, weather radar, NEXRAD, GPWS, TCAS and airport information all on the same screen.

34. What is HOTAS?
HOTAS, an abbreviation for Hands On Throttle-And-Stick, is the name given to the concept of placing buttons and switches on the throttle stick and flight control stick in an aircraft's cockpit, allowing the pilot to access vital cockpit functions and fly the aircraft without having to remove his hands from the throttle and flight controls. Having all switches on the stick and throttle allows the pilot to keep his "hands on throttle-and-stick", thus allowing him to remain focused on more
important duties than looking for controls in the cockpit.

35. Explain HUD?
A head-up display, or abbreviated as HUD, is any transparent display that presents data without requiring the user to look away from his or her usual viewpoint. The origin of the name stems from the user being able to view information with his head "up" and looking forward, instead of angled down looking at lower instruments. Although they were initially developed for military aviation, HUDs are now used in commercial aircraft, automobiles, and other applications.

36. Explain Navigation.
Navigation is the process of reading, and controlling the movement of a craft or vehicle from one place to another. It is also the term of art used for the specialized knowledge used by navigators to perform navigation tasks. The word navigate is derived from the Latin "navigare", meaning "to sail".All navigational techniques involve locating the navigator's position compared to known locations or patterns.

37. Explain the types of Navigation.
• Dead reckoning
• Navigation by Piloting
• Celestial navigation
• Electronic navigation

38. Explain Dead reckoning type of navigation.
Dead reckoning (DR) is the process of estimating one's current position based upon a previously determined position, or fix, and advancing that position based upon known or estimated speeds over elapsed time, and course. While traditional methods of dead reckoning are no longer considered primary means of navigation, modern inertial navigation systems, which also depend upon dead reckoning, are very widely used.

39. What is INS?
An Inertial Navigation System (INS) is a navigation aid that uses a computer, motion sensors (accelerometers) and rotation sensors (gyroscopes) to continuously calculate via dead reckoning the position, orientation, and velocity (direction and speed of movement) of a moving object without the need for external references. It is used on vehicles such as ships, aircraft, submarines, guided missiles, and spacecraft.


 40. What are different types of INS?
It is of two different configurations based on the inertial sensor placement. They are
 a. Stable or Gimballed platform.
 b. Strap down platform

41. What is GPS?
The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a U.S. space-based global navigation satellite system. It provides reliable positioning, navigation, and timing services to worldwide users on a continuous basis in all weather, day and night, anywhere on or near the Earth. GPS is made up of three parts: between 24 and 32 satellites orbiting the Earth, four control and monitoring stations on Earth, and the GPS receivers owned by users. GPS satellites broadcast signals from space that are used by GPS receivers to provide three-dimensional location (latitude, longitude, and altitude) plus the time.

42. Explain about P and C/A codes.
Binary data that is modulated or "superimposed" on the carrier signal is referred to as Code. Two main forms of code are used with NAVSTAR GPS: C/A or Coarse/Acquisition Code (also known as the civilian code), is modulated and repeated on the L1 wave every millisecond; the P-Code, or Precise Code, is modulated on both the L1 and L2 waves and is repeated every seven days. The
(Y) code is a special form of P code used to protect against false transmissions; special hardware, available only to the U.S.government, must be used to decrypt the P(Y) code.

43. What is Flight control system?
An aircraft flight control system consists of flight control surfaces, the respective cockpit controls, connecting linkages, and the necessary operating mechanisms to control an aircraft's direction in flight. Aircraft engine controls are also considered as flight controls as they change speed.

44. What is Actuator?
An actuator is a mechanical device for moving or controlling a mechanism or system. An actuator typically is a mechanical device that takes energy, usually created by air, electricity, or liquid, and converts that into some kind of motion.

45. Explain different types of actuator.
• plasma actuators
• pneumatic actuators
• electric actuators
• hydraulic cylinders,
• linear actuators

46. What is FBW?
A fly-by-wire system actually replaces manual control of the aircraft with an electronic interface. The movements of flight controls are converted to electronic signals, and flight control computers determine how to move the actuators at each control surface to provide the expected response. The actuators are usually hydraulic, but electric actuators have also been used.

47. Explain the advantage of FBW over conventional FCS.
• Care free maneuvering characteristics
• Continuous automatic stabilization of the aircraft by computer control of the control surfaces
• Auto pilot integration
• Good consistent handling which is sensibly constant over a wide flight envelope and range of load conditions
• Enables a lighter, higher performance aircraft designed with relaxed stability

48. What is strap down Navigation?
Strapdown systems have all their sensors mounted on a platform that changes orientation like the plane. Instead of mechanical gyros to hold it level, it has three more accurate gyros that sense the orientation of the system. Additionally, it has the same three acceleration sensors. Whereas the gimballed system just senses the orientation of the platform to get the aircraft's attitude, the strapdown systems have three gyroscopes that sense the rate of roll, pitch, and yaw. It integrates them to get the orientation, then calculates the acceleration in each of the same axes as the gimballed system. Due to the sensing of the rate of rotation, rather than just holding a platform level, very accurate and sensitive gyroscopes are needed.

49. What is FMS?
A Flight Management System is a fundamental part of a modern aircraft in that it controls the navigation. The flight management system (FMS) is the avionics that holds the flight plan, and allows the pilot to modify as required in flight. The FMS uses various sensors to determine the aircraft's position. Given the position and the flight plan, the FMS guides the aircraft along the flight plan. The FMS is normally controlled through a small screen and a keyboard.

50. What is meant by jammers in electronic warfare?
Electronic jamming is a form of Electronic Warfare where jammers radiate interfering signals toward an enemy's radar, blocking the receiver with highly concentrated energy signals. The two main technique styles are noise techniques and repeater techniques.

51. Give the difference between ECCM and ECM.
Electronic countermeasures (ECM) are a subsection of electronic warfare which includes any sort of electrical or electronic device designed to trick or deceive radar, sonar, or other detection systems like IR (infrared) and Laser. It may be used both offensively or defensively in any method to deny targeting information to an enemy. The system may make many separate targets appear to the enemy, or make the real target appear to disappear or move about randomly. It is used
effectively to protect aircraft from guided missiles. Most air forces use ECM to protect their aircraft from attack.

Electronic counter-countermeasures (ECCM) is a part of electronic warfare which includes a variety of practices which attempt to reduce or eliminate the effect of electronic countermeasures (ECM) on electronic sensors aboard vehicles, ships and aircraft and weapons such as missiles. ECCM is also known as electronic protective measures (EPM), chiefly in Europe. In practice, EPM often means resistance to jamming.

52. Explain RADAR.
Radar is an object detection system that uses electromagnetic waves to identify the range, altitude, direction, or speed of both moving and fixed objects such as aircraft, ships, motor vehicles, weather formations, and terrain. The term RADAR was coined in 1941 as an acronym for RAdio Detection And Ranging. A radar system has a transmitter that emits microwaves or radio waves. These waves are in phase when emitted, and when they come into contact with an object are scattered in all directions. The signal is thus partly reflected back and it has a slight change of wavelength (and thus frequency) if the target is moving. Although the signal returned is usually very weak, the signal can be amplified through use of electronic techniques in the receiver and in the antenna configuration. This enables radar to detect objects at ranges where other emissions, such as sound or visible light, would be too weak to detect.

53. Explain Certification.
Certification refers to the confirmation of certain characteristics of an object, person, or organization. This confirmation is often, but not always, provided by some form of external review, education, or assessment.

54. Explain V & V
Verification and validation is the process of checking that a product, service, or system meets specifications and that it fulfills its intended purpose. These are critical components of a quality management system such as ISO 9000. Sometimes preceded with "Independent" (or IV&V) to ensure the validation is performed by a disinterested third party.

55. Explain Reliability.
• The idea that something is fit for purpose with respect to time;
• The capacity of a device or system to perform as designed;
• The resistance to failure of a device or system;
• The ability of a device or system to perform a required function under stated conditions for a specified period of time;
• The probability that a functional unit will perform its required function for a specified interval under stated conditions.
• The ability of something to "fail well" (fail without catastrophic consequences)

56. Explain maintainability.
The probability that a failed system can be made operable in a specified interval or downtime is called as maintainability.

57. Explain Electronic warfare.
Electronic warfare (EW) refers to any action involving the use of the electromagnetic spectrum or directed energy to control the spectrum or to attack the enemy. The purpose of electronic warfare is to deny the opponent the advantage of, and ensure friendly unimpeded access to, the EM spectrum. EW can be applied from air, sea, land, and space by manned and unmanned systems, and can target communication, radar, or other services. EW includes three major subdivisions: Electronic Attack (EA), Electronic Protection (EP), and Electronic warfare Support (ES).

58. Explain the specific advantages of INS.
• It is the self contained, autonomous and unjammable.
• It is faster than the data given by the GPS.
• INS is very accurate over the short distance.

59. Explain Gimbaled INS.
Gimbaled systems have a platform in the device that is mounted in gimbals. This device has 2 or more mechanical gyroscopes (not likely there are more than 3) that keep this platform level. On the platform, in addition to the gyroscopes, are usually three accelerometers, one in each direction. This was the earlier type of INS. It does not need accurate gyroscope orientation sensing, they only need mechanical gyroscopes to keep a platform level -- a much less demanding task for the gyroscopes. Additionally, since the accelerometers are already oriented (usually north/south, east/west, and up/down) the actual integration to obtain velocity and then position can be done by simpler, analog electronics.

60. Give few examples of integrated avionics system used in weapon system.
• Hemet Mounted Display (HMT)
• Head Level Display (HLD)
• Night Vision Goggles (NGV)
• Forward Looking Infra Red Displays (FLIR)

61. Give few examples of Standards used in design of avionics system.
Military standards - MIL-STD-1629A (Hardware FMEA), MIL STD-882 (systems safety program requirements) ARINC 429, 629 (Civilian a/c data bus) and MIL-STD-1553A, 1773 
(Military a/c data buses) 
• Civil Standards - FAR 25 : 1309 A (equipments, systems and installation), FAR 25 : 581 (lightning protection systems), FAR 25 : 571 (control systems), FAR 25: 572 (stability augmentation systems)

62. Give few examples of integrated avionics system used in civil airlines. 
• INS & GPS (Navigation) 
• MFKs and MFDU (Display I/O) 
• HUD 
• Glass Cockpit 
 
63. Explain the steps of certification. 
• Assessment 
• Validation 
• Verification 
 
Other major steps like 
• Functional Hazard Assessment (FHA) 
• Fault Tree Analysis (FTA) 
• Failure Mode Effect Analysis (FMEA) 
 
64. Explain the document support for Certification. 
• In Military aircrafts, the documents support for certification 
i. MIL-STD-1629A (Hardware) 
ii. DOD-STD-2167 (Software) 
• In Civil aircrafts, the document support for certification 
o FAR 25 : 1309A (systems) 
o RTCA-DO-178A (Software) 
 
Within the overall task of hardware assessment and validation, 
Certification is perhaps the most difficult part for civil/military avionics designers. Certification is the challenging process of negotiation and compromise between the designers and the regulatory authorities buttressed by technical analysis and expertise on both sides. 
 
65. Explain the advantage of GPS over conventional navigation. 
• Global coverage and assessment 
• More precise 
• High integrity and portable simple system 
• Augments the accuracy of the self contained systems 
 
66. Explain FBW over FBL. 
• FBW: (FLY BY WIRE) It’s a concept of utilizing digital data bus for the transmission of mechanical movements from pilot’s joystick to the Mechanical actuators near by the control surface in the form of electronic signals using suitable transducers. It eliminates majority of the weight in handling control rods, push pull systems. Because of this weight elimination the redundancy level of FBW can be raised. 

• FBL: (FLY BY LIGHT) It’s a concept of utilizing optic fiber cables for the transmission of mechanical movements from pilot’s joystick to the mechanical actuators near by the control surface in the form of monochromatic light signals using suitable transducers. It eliminates the amplification units, filter circuits, modulator units etc., which are at high redundant levels in the FBW. FBL is more reliable and the signals passing through the fiber optic cable never degrade and hence it contributes further low weight in the aircraft. 
 
67. What is FBL? 
• FBL: (FLY BY LIGHT) It’s a concept of utilizing optic fiber cables for the transmission of mechanical movements from pilot’s joystick to the mechanical actuators near by the control surface in the form of monochromatic light signals using suitable transducers. It eliminates the amplification units, filter circuits, modulator units etc., which are at high redundant levels in the FBW. FBL is more reliable and the signals passing through the fiber optic cable never degrade and hence it contributes further low weight in the aircraft. 
 
68. Compare INS and GPS. 
Sl. No. INS GPS 
01 Self contained system Not a self contained system 
02 Accuracy degrades with time Accuracy level is high always 
03 Being a self contained system, weight is more Weight is less comparatively 
04 No signal transmission/reception Signal is transmitted/received 
 
69. What is usage of night vision goggles? 
• Night time flight is possible (As pilot can see the terrain like a near morning) 
• Close Ground Support during night time attack is enabled in rotor and fighter planes 
• Night time reconnaissance and surveillance is possible on NVG enabled cameras 
 
70. Explain advantage of EL over Plasma display. 
• Less flickering 
• Sustainable luminosity even during aging 
• Light weight than plasma displays 
• Simple light weight component 
• Available in smaller size (unlike plasma displays, which are available only at 32”) 
 
71. Explain the need of communication system in airline. 
• Renders a clear picture of aircrafts health during the complete mission 
• Ensures safety landing and take-off guidance • Provides suitable environment awareness to the crew members of flight to direct the flying machine 
• Acts as primary interfacing unit between pilot and the ATC or ground station. 
 
72. Explain the advantage of HMD over MUD? 
• In HMD the gimbaled sensors enables the pilot to watch critical data in the helmet in the directions through which he/she moves/looks, thus facilitating him/her to watch the primary data always. 
• HMD display formats are very similar to those of HUDs except for the addition of helmet-pointing azimuth and elevation information and vectors showing where the last target of interest was prior to looking down into the cockpit or searching for another target. 

 73. Explain MFK and its usage. 
• As the cockpits of modern aircraft have more controls jammed into them, the point reached where there is no more space. Multifunction keyboards (MFKs) offer a very attractive solution to this space problem wherein a single panel of switches performs a variety of functions depending on the phase of the mission or the keyboard menu selected. 

• Multifunction keyboards can be implemented in several ways. The first two ways use LEDs or LCDs in panels in a central location. Designs using LEDs have arrays (typically ranging from five rows of three switches to seven rows of five switches) of standard sized push button switches with 
legends built into the surface of the switches. 
 
74. Differentiate between Civil and military communication standards. 
Sl. No. Civil Communication Standards Military Communication Standards 
01 Speed level in data bus is generally slow Speed level in the data bus is high 
02 Frequency band is in common range of communication devices Frequency band is in isolated or restricted range of communication devices. It varies between nation to nation 
03 Redundancy and integrity level is moderate Redundancy and integrity level is high 
04 Maintenance is spoken in terms of Cost Of Ownership (COO) Maintenance is spoken in terms of Life Cycle Cost (LCC) 
05 Ex: ARINC 429, FAR-25-1309A Ex: MIL-STD-1553A, MIL-STD-16629A 
 
75. Differentiate between ARINC 429 and ARINC 629. 
Sl. No. MIL-STD-1553A ARINC 429 ARINC 629 
01 Adopted in 1970 Adopted in 1977 Adopted in 1989 
02 Half duplex data bus Simplex data bus Duplex data bus 
03 SPEED 1 Mb/s SPEED Critical data 100 Kb/s Non critical data 12-14.5 Kb/s SPEED 2 Mb/s 
04 Command/Response protocol Williamsberg protocol Protocol: CSMA/CA – Carrier sense multiple access/ Collision avoidance 
05 Called as Digital Time Division Command/Response Multiplex Data bus Called as Digital Data 
CompendiumCalled as DATAC- Digital Autonomous Terminal Access Control 
06 31 RTs can be accessed 
 
76. Explain the major components of microprocessor. 
• Arithmetic and Logical Unit 
• Timing and Control Unit 
• Register sets 
 
77. What is fetching? 
• Fetching means getting/bringing/taking/carrying/obtaining the value/address from the specific memory location/register pair. 
• Assembly language code MOV B,A says that fetch the 8 bit data from accumulator to B register. 
 
78. Give the need for standard documents in the design of avionics system. • In most of the aircrafts, the most important avionics function is flight controls, frequently in flight critical manner, that is, if the avionics fail, the aircraft is lost. Because of the critical role for the avionics, it is essential to take early surveys to formulate standards. 
• Those standards must ensure the aircraft safety even during the critical failure of its avionics components. 
• Those accepted standards have to be documented so that in future avionics design for various aircraft it would be considered as reference to build it. 
• Ex. MIL-STD-9490, 1629, 810 etc., 
 
79. Give the advantages of digitization. 
• Digitizing or digitization means converting the analogue data in to discrete or digital data source. 
• Converting the details about a picture/sound/scene in to a discrete form is called as digitizing. 
 
80. What are major drivers for avionics in civil transport aircraft? 
• Major drivers for avionics in civil transport aircraft are: 
i. Capability 
ii. Reliability 
iii. Maintainability 
iv. Certificability 
v. Cost of Ownership vi. Technical risk 
vii. Power and Weight 
 
81. Explain the usage of microprocessors in Avionics system. 
• In ground station, the complete avionics on ATC (AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL) is running on the backbone of microprocessor for various data computation. (weather data computation) 

• Sensors on the airborne equipments are interrupted and computed to the understandable values and displayed on the panels only through the use of microprocessor. (Temperature monitoring system) 
• And most of the avionics system in fighter planes utilizes microprocessor for data computation and presentation. (HMT, HUD) 
 
82. How are reliability and maintainability related to each other? 
• When a system is said to be more reliable and maintainable then it is readily available. 
• A more reliable system requires less maintenance and a less reliable system requires more maintenance. Hence a suitable trade-off has to be made between these two things to save money. 
• Both increase in reliability and maintainability requires more money in turn. 
 

Saturday, February 8, 2014

Answer keys, Question Papers of M.Ed 2011 entrance test Punjab University:

Punjab University M.Ed 2011 question paper with answer keys:

Are you looking for M.Ed 2011 question paper with answer key for the Punjab University ? M.Ed entrance test is conducted every year by Punjab University, Chandigarh. Hereunder the question papers with answer key are provided. Use them for your examination purpose.

M. Ed. Entrance Test-2011
Question Booklet Series : A
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No. In Figures                                                         In Words
O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.
                                                                                        Signature of the Candidate :
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75                                             Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else.
2. Enter the series code of the Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent / Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Question Booklet No. :

1. The science and theory of knowledge is known as :
(A) Metaphysics (B) Axiology
(C) Epistemology (D) Aesthetics
2. Education aims at :
(A) inciting conflicts in the society (B) strengthening hierarchy in the society
(C) accelerating dissensions in the society (D) wiping out ignorance from the society
3. Self Expression is one of the main aims of education for the protagonists of the philosophy
of :
(A) Naturalism (B) Idealism
(C) Realism (D) Existentialism
4. Informal education of a child commences :
(A) when a child leaves the school after completing his education
(B) the moment a child takes birth
(C) immediately after a child starts playing with her peer group
(D) the moment a child joins the school
5. Indicate which of the following statements explains the nature of culture :
(A) Culture is social inheritance (B) Culture is genetic inheritance
(C) Culture is static (D) Culture is incommunicable
6. Modernization of society means :
(A) ensuring change in material culture exclusively
(B) promoting mechanical adoption of affluent western world legacy
(C) establishing economically developed, rational and enlightened society
(D) advocating through rejection of heritage
7. Indicate the kind of orientation an individual require to adjust with the process of social
change :
(A) Progressive (B) Conformist
(C) Traditionalist (D) Confrontationist
8. Caste is a closed group of society because it :
(A) refuses an identity to the individuals
(B) denies privileges for some members
(C) sidelines the interests of its members
(D) does not allow its members to shift to another caste-group
9. It is believed that values are caught and not taught’, hence the best way of inculcating
values among children is that a teacher :
(A) explains a particular value while narrating stories of great men
(B) remains vigilant on the behaviour of students and keeps a check
(C) himself lives those values and becomes a role model
(D) punishes the wrong doers so that others may become better
10. School is an agency that :
(A) conserves and transmits culture (B) promotes divisions in society
(C) restricts the process of social progress (D) hinders the process of socialization
11. Secularism as enshrined in the Constitution of India does not refer to :
(A) equal respect to all the religions (B) complete ban on all religions by the state
(C) no patronising of any religion by the state (D) scientific and rational disposition
12. A book named ‘Pedagogy of the opressed’ was authored by :
(A) Bertrand Russell (B) Herbert Kohl
(C) John Dewey (D) Paulo Freire
13. Unesco’s Delors Commission report that observed that the ‘task of education is to teach
at one and the same time, the diversity of human race and awareness of the similarities
between and interdependence of all humans’ was published in 1996 under the title :
(A) Learning To Be (B) Learning the Treasure Within
(C) Learning to Know (D) Learning to Do
14. ‘Destiny of India is being shaped in its class-rooms’ was stated by :
(A) Indian Education Commission 1964-66
(B) National Policy on Education, 1986
(C) Secondary Education Commission-1952-53
(D) University Education Commission 1948
15. Full form of GATS under World Trade Organisation is :
(A) Global Agreement on Trade in Services
(B) General Agreement on Trade in Services
(C) Global Arrangement on Trade in Services
(D) General Arrangement on Trade in Services
16. Identify the programme which has become the main vehicle of implementing Right to
Education Act-2010 in India ?
(A) District Primary Education Programme (B) Operation Blackboard
(C) Sarv Shiksha Abhiyan (D) Adult Literacy Programme
17. Learning refers to :
(A) Change in Belief system (B) Change in aptitude
(C) Change in behaviour (D) Change in retention
18. The process of release of emotional energy through self–expression is called :
(A) Sublimation (B) Catharsis
(C) Suprassion (D) Aggression
19. “More frequently a stimulus-response connection occurs, stronger is the resulting association and hence, stronger the learning.” This situation referes to which law of learning ?
(A) Law of readiness (B) Law of effect
(C) Law of exercise (D) Law of association
20. Aptitude refers to :
(A) set of abilities essential for aquiring knowledge and skills
(B) readiness to respond in a pre-determined manner to relevant a stimulus
(C) intellectual ability of an individual
(D) cause of an activity and the result of participation in an activity
21. The learning theory of classical conditioning was propounded by :
(A) E. L. Thorndike (B) B. F. Skinner
(C) J. B. Watson (D) Ivan P. Pavlov
22. The development of personality is determined by :
(A) the heredity of an individual (B) the environment a person lives in
(C) the interaction of heredity and environment (D) the parent-child interaction
23. Psycho-social approach to understand personality was initiated by :
(A) Adler (B) Eyesenck
(C) Erikson (D) Freud
24. When a person makes efforts to cope with the standards, values and needs of society in
order to be accepted by the society, it refers to :
(A) Social Facilitation (B) Social Adjustment
(C) Social Maturity (D) Social Cohesion
25. Indicate the statement that does not hold true about the nature of human development :
(A) Development is always uniform
(B) Development proceeds from generality to specificity
(C) Development is sequential
(D) Development is differential
26. Neonate means :
(A) An abnormal baby (B) An irritable baby
(C) A new born baby (D) An unattended baby
27. A maladjusted person tends to be :
(A) Independent in decision making (B) Shy and showing temper tantrums
(C) Warm and understanding (D) Mature and emotionally balanced
28. Rohit has job offers from two companies and both the offers are very attractive. He has to choose one. Which kind of conflict is he faced with ?
(A) approach- avoidance conflict (B) avoidance -avoidance conflict
(C) no conflict at all (D) approach-approach conflict
29. According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development the Post-conventional level is the stage when children
(A) simply obey authority figures to avoid being punished
(B) realize that values are some what arbitrary and relative to each society
(C) consider the feeling of others in making moral decisions
(D) make moral decisions as per their instincts
30. Positive transfer of learning means that :
(A) learning of activity makes the learning of another activity easier
(B) previous learning has no effect on the subsequent learning
(C) previous learning overlaps subsequent learning
(D) previous performance puts hinderance in the performance of subsequent task
31. Which of the following is the highest kind of learning in cognitive domain ?
(A) Role learning (B) Concept learning
(C) Problem solving (D) Learning of principles
32. The highest order need in Maslow’s hierarchical order of needs is :
(A) Self esteem (B) Self-actualization
(C) Psychological needs (D) Safety needs
33. The concept of ‘mental age’ in the measurement of intelligence was introduced for the
first time by :
(A) L. M. Terman (B) David Wechsler
(C) Alferd Binet (D) P. E. Vernon
34. Trainable mentally retarded children fall in the intelligence quotient range of :
(A) 90-70 (B) 70-50
(C) 50-35 (D) Below 35
35. Indicate the stage in life when a child experiences spurt in growth resulting into rapid increase in height and weight :
(A) Adolescence (B) Infancy
(C) Late childhood (D) Early childhood
36. Which of the following technique does not belong to behavioural Educational Technology designed to modify teacher’s behaviour ?
(A) Simulated social skill technique (B) Microteaching
(C) Interaction-Analysis Technique (D) Programmed learning
37. Teaching-session in micro-teaching session is stipulated to be of :
(A) 36 minutes (B) 6 minutes
(C) 10 minutes (D) 12 minutes
38. Measurement refers to :
(A) the process where results of a programme’s stated objectives are examined
(B) the process of comparing the outcomes with reference to some standards
(C) assigning numerals to events/objects according to certain rules
(D) the process of undertaking assessment of some programme
39. When an individual produces a single response to a specific question or a problem, it is called :
(A) Divergent thinking (B) Critical thinking
(C) Analytical thinking (D) Convergent thinking
40. Pre-active stage of teaching refers to the process of :
(A) decision making regarding the teaching strategies to be employed
(B) changing the teaching strategies in terms of feedback
(C) deployment of teaching strategies
(D) Contemplating the outcome of teaching activity
41. Equality of educational opportunities means that :
(A) all individuals, regardless of their capabilities, should be treated equally
(B) slow runners and fast movers should be given equal treatment
(C) poor economic conditions of students should not restrict their reach to educational
opportunities
(D) unjust distribution of privileges to certain individuals
42. Choose the statement from the following which correctly explains the nature of evaluation in education :
(A) Evaluation and measurement are synonymous
(B) Evaluation is essentially a subjective process
(C) Evaluation of outcome preceeds instructional transaction
(D) Evaluation is a process of appraisal of an object or event with reference to some standard
43. Indicate the option which is not correct in relation to the basic principles of programmed learning ?
(A) Principle of self pacing (B) Principle of active response
(C) Principle of delayed confirmation (D) Principle of small steps
44. Statement of the instructional objectives should be :
(A) made with reference to teacher’s activity
(B) conceived and made in terms of pupil’s expected behavioural outcomes
(C) made in broader terms
(D) made in composit manner
45. Diagnostic tests aim at :
(A) identifying difficulties and weaknesses of students
(B) grading of students
(C) evaluating the achievement level of students
(D) comparing the achievement levels of students in a group
46. Formative evaluation is undertaken with an objective to :
(A) facilitate certification of the students (B) assign grades to students
(C) improve learning and instruction (D) find out level of attainment
47. Non-verbal test is the one :
(A) Where the examinee is required to perform some task
(B) Where the language is not used
(C) Where reading, writing and oral expression is the primary mode of communication
(D) Where symbolic material like pictures and figures are used
48. The levels of cognitive learning as categorised by Bloom are :
(A) Comprehension to synthesis (B) Knowledge to evaluation
(C) Application to evaluation (D) Understanding to problem solving
49. Verbal learning takes place through :
(A) Subsumption (B) Dissociation
(C) Recall (D) Organisation
50. Objective type test is the one :
(A) which discourages guessing on the part of examinee
(B) which provides the examinee opportunity for free expression
(C) where each question has only one fixed correct answer to select from given alternatives
(D) where the evaluator has the liberty to score the test items in his own way
51. Median is :
(A) a point on array above and below which one-half of scores lie
(B) the most frequently occurring score in a distribution
(C) an arithmetic average of scores
(D) square of deviations from mean scores
52. Inductive thinking model of teaching was developed by :
(A) Jerome Bruner (B) Jean Piaget
(C) Richard Suchman (D) Hild Taba
53. Which of the following does not explain the feature of Personalized System of Instruction ?
(A) It is individually pased technique of teaching and learning
(B) It extensively uses lectures to motivate the students
(C) It uses printed study guides to communicate information
(D) It is a mastery oriented learning technique
54. Computer assisted instruction refers to :
(A) denial of feedback to students
(B) replacement of the teacher from the process
(C) provision of individualized instruction to each and every student
(D) restriction on the flow of information
55. Select the verb that can present the instructional objectives in behavioural terms :
(A) explain (B) understand
(C) synthesize (D) think
56. Indicate the option from below which is not true for simulated teaching :
(A) It is a dramatic strategy of teaching
(B) It is undertaken in artificial situations
(C) It is scaled down teaching
(D) It is a rehersal before facing real class-room teaching
57. Which of the following is an audio-aid ?
(A) Dramatization (B) Phonograph disc
(C) Film strip (D) Television
58. Teachers can enhance the creativity among students in the class-rooms by :
(A) ensuring restricted atmosphere to students
(B) avoiding extending credit for innovating thinking
(C) organising controlled, formal discussions in the class-rooms
(D) encouraging unusual questions from students
59. Modern concept of supervision in educational institutions :
(A) is imposing and authoritarian
(B) is systematic approach where human interaction is ignored
(C) is based on research and analysis of total teaching-learning environment
(D) has no mandate to provide vision to the staff and faculty
60. A democratic leader in an Educational institution would prefer :
(A) making decisions by consultation, deliberation and participation of staff and faculty
(B) taking no decisions and exhibiting passivity towards problems
(C) learning all decisions to the staff and faculty
(D) directing and forcing the staff and faculty to work
61. Socialistic pattern of society aims at :
(A) ensuring status quo based on discrimination
(B) developing an egalitarian society based on justice
(C) eliminating equality in the society
(D) retaining oppression by the state
62. Comprehensive and continuous internal assessment scheme of examination aims at :
(A) creating conflict between teacher and students
(B) exposing teacher to an unfriendly situation
(C) incorporating both scholastic and non-scholastic aspects of education spread over the total span of instructional transaction
(D) making students complacent regarding their studies
63. An effective teacher tends to avoid being :
(A) sarcastic towards the students
(B) affectionate towards the students
(C) empathetic towards the students
(D) concerned and committed towards the students
64. Indicate the kind of organisational climate of an educational institution that is ranked highest for achieving the institutional goals effectively.
(A) closed climate (B) familiar climate
(C) autonomous climate (D) controlled climate
65. Parents-teachers associations aim at :
(A) bringing home, society and school in close contact
(B) promoting dissensions and politicking
(C) emerging as a parallel management structure in the school
(D) interfering with the academic programme of the school
66. Choose the body that has the mandate to regulate teacher education programmes in the country.
(A) AICTE (B) NCERT
(C) NCTE (D) MCI
67. The guidance service which systematically gather the information periodically from the alumni is known as :
(A) Placement service (B) Follow-up service
(C) Counselling service (D) Pupil inventory service
68. Non-directing counselling is :
(A) counsellor centred (B) problem centred
(C) client centred (D) family centred
69. Dyslexia is referred to the :
(A) difficulty in learning to read (B) difficulty in learning to write
(C) difficulty in doing arithmatic (D) difficulty in grasping spoken word
70. Common school system of public education was recommended by :
(A) Secondary Education Commission 1952-53
(B) Kothari Commission 1964-66
(C) Sargent Commission 1944
(D) Radha Krishan Commission-1948
71. In norm referenced evaluation the focus is on :
(A) what a child has learnt
(B) determining the extent of learning according to fixed standards
(C) where a child stands in relation to others in a group
(D) evaluation of the teaching process
72. Rate of return approach of educational planning is based on :
(A) cost benefit analysis of investment in education
(B) liberal levels of investment in education
(C) accepting education as a social good
(D) manpower needs in the society
73. Educare, the Latin word, from which the term education is perceived to be derived means :
(A) to bring up (B) to draw out
(C) to teach (D) to pamper
74. “No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institutions wholly maintained out of State funds” is taken from Constitution of India, Part IV Directive Principles of State Policy, under article :
(A) 302 (B) 29
(C) 30.1 (D) 28.1
75. In a good questionnaire, each question should be :
(A) simply worded and containing a single idea (B) hypothetical in nature
(C) presuming in nature (D) Suggestive in nature





Answer Key:
M.ED. ENTRANCE TEST - 2011
P A N J A B U N I V E R S I T Y, C H A N D I G A R H
Booklet Series .: A
Subject.........: M.ED.
No. of Questions: 75
--- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- ---
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0
--- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- ---
1 C D A B A C A D C A 10
11 B D B A B C C B C A 20
21 D C A B A C B D B A 30
31 X B C C A D B C D A 40
41 C D C B A C D B A C 50
51 A D B C A C B D C A 60
61 B C A C A C B X A B 70
71 C A B D A 80
X in the key indicates that the corresponding question is incorrect and one mark for each such question will be awarded to all candidates.