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Monday, June 30, 2014

How to understand the 'Static force analysis of mechanisms in Dynamics of Machinery'

Introduction:

First of all, you should know what is dynamics of machines or machinery. The subject Dynamics of Machines (DOM) are derived from the "Theory of Machines". Let me explain it. Theory of Machines is the science which deals all related to machines. That is, displacement, velocity, acceleration, various forces acting on the machine parts and their effects are studies. From which some of the specific studies have been made and those are termed into different subcategories. DOM is such one. So the classification of Theory of Machines can be understood from the following diagram.

Dynamics deals with the study of forces and their motions of parts of machines, wheres as Kinematics deals with only the study of the motions (displacement, velocity and acceleration analysis only). So you may think what is kinetics. Kinetics is the science which deals with only the study of inertia forces and their effects. Now what should be the statics? It is simply defined as the study of body or machine parts under the rest (No external forces are acting)

Some basic terminologies involved in the study of Static force analysis of mechanisms

Before going into analysis section, you must know,
  • What is static force?
  • What is dynamic force?
  • What is inertia force?
Static Force: It is nothing but a force which is experienced due to the self weight or load of a body or parts of machine. Example: Hanging weights

Dynamic Force: It is a force that are found in the moving parts of a machine. Moving can be linear, rotation or some other means. Example: Forces in the rotating fan, prime movers, lathe in operation, drilling machines in operations and so on.

Inertia Force: It is an imaginary internal force of body which is created due to the rotating or reciprocating parts of a body.  It resists any change in the status of motion of body. It has the tentency to keep the moving objects in a straight line. Ex: Moving cricket ball

Equilibrium: A body is to be in equilibrium when all the forces are in balance and no resulting acceleration presents in it.




Static Equilibrium: When a body is at rest, it tends to remain at rest. So there is no velocities. This status is called as static equilibrium. That is the body is statically balanced.

Dynamic Equilibrium: When a body is in motion, it tends to keep the motion. So the velocities exist but remains constant. This status is know to be dynamic equilibrium

Newton's first law of forces: Static and dynamic equilibrium are defined based on the newton's first law of motion. The law states that every body continues its state of rest or motion unless it is compelled to change its state by externally applied force.

Conditions for equilibrium: There are two conditions defined for equilibrium whether static or dynamics equilibrium.
  1. Vector or algebraic sum of all forces acting on a body must be zero
  2. The Vector or algebraic sum of all the moments of all forces about any point must be zero.
Mathematically, ΣF = 0, ΣM = 0, where F is resultant force, M is resultant moment

In case of planer mechanisms, the forces are being solved along two mutually perpendicular axes. So the equation are, ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0, ΣFM= 0

Example for equilibrium - Equilibrium of two and three forces systems

Let us consider a body with two force system as shown in the Figure 1 and 2.


Here, consider two forces of different magnitude and action at different directions as shown in the figure. Since two forces are not equal and in different directions, the vector of sum of these forces will not be zero and hence they will be not in equilibrium. So a body under the action of forces will be in equilibrium when
  • Two forces must be equal in magnitude
  • They should act along the same line and in opposite direction to each other
These conditions are satisfied in the Figure 2 shown below and hence the forces in it are said to be in equilibrium.


Similarly, for a body under the action of three forces, the equilibrium status will be governed by the following rules,
  • The resultant force of three forces must be zero
  • The line of action of all the three forces must be meeting at a common point called as the "point of concurrency"

The respective figures are shown below.



Note: Moment about a point can be defined as the turning effect of a force about that point. It is measured using magnitude of force x the perpendicular distance between the force and the point.

Free Body Diagrams

It can defined as the diagram which describes various parts of machines or mechanisms that are physically disconnected.. Each part or link will be in equilibrium when the whole system in equilibrium. F.B.D is an important toll in analyzing the forces in mechanisms. See the following example in which the all links are freely drawn by disconnecting from each other in a four bar mechanism.


Methods of Static Force Analysis of Simple Mechanisms

There are generally three methods of the static force analysis. There are:
  1. Principle of Super position
  2. Method of normal and radial components
  3. Principal of virtual work
Let's see each method one by one.


Saturday, June 28, 2014

National Engineering College, Kovilpatti

Are you looking for college National Engineering College, Kovilpatti? Here's available the contact and other details of National Engineering College, Kovilpatti

Name of the college: National Engineering College

Short Name : NEC, K.R College, National

Location: Kovilpatti, Tamil Nadu

Full Address:
K.R.Nagar,
Kovilpatti,
Nallatinputhur,
Tamil Nadu-628503,
India.

Phone/Mobile Numbers: 04632-222502

Email: [email protected]

Facebook ID: Not Available

Official Website: www.nec.edu.in

Autonomous Status: YES

Affiliated University: Anna University, Chennai (Only for degree award and other important instructions) Website of University - www.annauniv.edu


Chendhuran College of Engineering & Technology, Pudukkottai

Are you looking for college details of Chendhuran College of Engineering & Technology, Pudukkottai? Here's available the contact and other details of Chendhuran College of Engineering & Technology, Pudukkottai.

Name of the college: Chendhuran College of Engineering & Technology

Short Name : CCET

Location: Pudukottai, Tamil Nadu

Full Address:
Lena Vilakku,
Pilivalam Post,
Thirumayam TK,
Pudukkottai - 622507,
Tamil Nadu, India.

[Just nearer to MZCET]

Phone/Mobile Numbers/Fax: 91-4333-321777; Fax:04333-277499, 9750985850

Email: [email protected]

Facebook ID: https://www.facebook.com/CCETY

Official Website: www.chendhuran.in

Autonomous Status: NO

Affiliated University: Anna University, Chennai Website of University - www.annauniv.edu

Mount Zion College of Engineering and Technology, Pudukottai

Are you looking for college details of Mount Zion College of Engineering and Technology, Pudukottai? Here's available the contact and other details of Mount Zion College of Engineering and Technology, Pudukottai.

Name of the college: Mount Zion College of Engineering and Technology

Short Name : MZCET

Location: Pudukottai, Tamil Nadu

Full Address:
Lena vilakku,
Thirumayam (TK),
Pudukkottai (DT),
Puddukkottai-622507,
Tamil Nadu, India.

Phone/Mobile Numbers: 04322-320801, 04322 - 320802

Email: [email protected]

Facebook ID: https://www.facebook.com/pages/Mount-Zion-College-of-Engineering-Technology/167464186616878

Official Website: www.mzcet.in

Autonomous Status: NO

Affiliated University: Anna University, Chennai Website of University - www.annauniv.edu

Photos of MZCET:

2013 Annual day Final Moment on National Anthem:


The moment of Registrar Speech on the magazine release function on 2013:



Global Institute of Engineering and Technology, Vellore

Are you looking for college details of Global Institute of Engineering and Technology, Vellore? Here's available the contact and other details of Global Institute of Engineering and Technology, Vellore.

Name of the college: Global Institute of Engineering and Technology

Short Name : GIET

Location: Vellore, Tamil Nadu

Full Address:
257/1, Bangalore-Chennai Highway,
Melvisharam,
Pudupet,
National Highway 46,
Vellore, Tamil Nadu 632509.

Phone/Mobile Numbers: 04172-266 050

Email: [email protected], [email protected]

Facebook ID: www.facebook.com/gloabaliet

Official Website: www.getedu.in

Affiliated University: Anna University, Chennai Website of University - www.annauniv.edu

Sri Vidya College of Engineering and Technology, Virudhunagar

Are you looking for college details of Sri Vidya College of Engineering and Technology, Virudhunagar? Here's available the contact and other details of Sri Vidya College of Engineering and Technology, Virudhunagar.

Name of the college: Sri Vidya College of Engineering and Technology

Short Name : SVCET

Location: Virudhunagar, Tamil Nadu

Full Address:
Sivakasi Main Road,
P.Kumaralingapuram,
Virudhunagar-625005,
Tamil Nadu, India.

Phone/Mobile Numbers: 04562 - 267467, 04562 - 267568

Email: [email protected] , [email protected] , [email protected]

Official Website: http://www.svicent.com

Affiliated University: Anna University, Chennai Website of University - www.annauniv.edu

Friday, June 27, 2014

Reporting Techniques and Skills, University of Delhi first semester B.Sc Mass Communication 2012 Question Paper

Are you looking for "Reporting Techniques and Skills" of University of Delhi? Here is an old question paper conducted in the year 2012 for B.Sc Mass Communication. This is useful for semester 1 examination for those studying under University of Delhi. Read the question paper content right from here and use it for your upcoming exams.




University:University of Delhi
Term of exam : Semester 1
Year of exam : 2012
Course : B.Sc Mass Communication
Paper Name : REPORTING TECHNIQUES AND SKILLS
Maximum marks : 75
Time : 3 hrs


Roll No. ................. Total No. of Pages : 02
Total No. of Questions : 13
B.Sc. Examination
REPORTING TECHNIQUES AND SKILLS
Subject Code : BSCMCAJ-301
Time : 3 Hrs. Max. Marks : 75

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES :
1. All questions of SECTION-A are compulsory. Each question carry TWO marks.
2. Attempt any NINE questions from SECTION-B. Each question carry FIVE marks.

SECTION A
l. Write short notes on : 15 × 2 = 30 Marks
a. Paid news
b. Press conference
c. Inverted pyramid style :
d. Summary Lead
e. Byline
f. Legal reporting
g. Stylebook
h. Attribution
i. Euphemism
j. Candids
k. News angle
l. Press release
m. Vox Pops
n. Stringer
o. Page 3

SECTION B (9 × 5 = 45 Marks)
2. Newspapers and journalism are good business today. Comment.
3. How can one be trained to become a journalist ?
4. List various types of interviews.
5. What are the skills needed for writing news ?
6. Discuss various kinds of leads.
7. What is interpretative reporting?
8. Which do you think is the most challenging beat ?
9. What role can ordinary citizens play in the journalistic process ?
10. How can a news story be made perfect ?
11. Explain the organisational structure of a magazine.
12. Write a review of a book you have read recently.
13. What things must be kept in mind while writing political news ?

Thursday, June 26, 2014

FIFA world cup football 2014 in Brazil: Live Streaming online and Telecasting details on various TV channels across world

Are you a big fan of football watching FIFA world cup 2014? This year, world cup 2014 on football has been kick started in Brazil in just few days back on 12th June 2014. FIFA is going interestingly. In this article, we have collected the live telecast details on online and various TV channels across the world. You can get all those information at one go. If you are looking for telecast details, then read this article completely.


How teams are grouped in FIFA world cup 2014

Before going to get details of live telecast, let's have a small look at the split up of teams for FIFA. There are totally 32 teams. They have been grouped into 08 each one comprises of 4 teams. The total matches being played will be 64 in this FIFA Mega football world-cup. Let's have a look at the teams in every group.

GROUP A: Brazil, Mexico, Croatia, Cameroon
GROUP B: Netherlands. Chile, Spain, Australia
GROUP C: Colombia, Greece, Cote d'Ivoire, Japan
GROUP D: Costa Rica, Uruguay, Italy, England
GROUP E: France, Switzerland, Ecuador, Honduras, 
GROUP F: Argentina, Nigeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Iran
GROUP G: Germany, USA, Ghana, Portugal
GROUP H: Belgium, Algeria, Russia, Korea Republic

Live Telecast details of FIFA World Cup 2014 on various TV channels in various parts of country

In USA, the channel telecasting FIFA world cup are ABC, ESPN, ESPN2. 

In India, Sony Six is the official broadcvaster of all matches in FIFA world cup 2014

In Brazil: Sport TV, ESPN Brazil, FOX Sports, Rede Globo, Rede Bandeirantes are telecasting the matches. Other countries have the following list.

Argentina: Tourneys Competencies, Canal 7, Direct TV
Australia: SBS
Austria: ORF
Afghanistan: Ariana TV
Albania: RTSH
Angola: TPA
Aruba: TeleAruba
Armenia: ARMTV 
Azerbaijan: Itv
Belarus: BTRC
Bolivia: Red Uno De Bolivia
Belgium: VRT and RTBF
Bosnia & Herzegovina: BHRT
Bulgaria: BNT
Brunei: Astro
Cameron: CR TV
Cambodia: CTN
Canada: CBC, Sportsnet, TVA 
Cape Verde: RTC
Chile: TVN, Canal 13, Direc TV
China PR: CC TV
Colombia: Caracol TV, RCN TV, Direct TV
Costa Rica: Repretel, Teletica
Cote d'Ivorie: RTI
Croatia: HRT 
Cyprus: CyBC, 
Czech Republic: CT
Denmark: DR, TV2
Ecuador: Gama TV, TC Television, Direct TV
Estonia: ERR
Ethiopia: ETV
Fiji: Mai TV
Finland: Yle 
France: TF1
Gabon: RTG
Ghana: GBC, Metro TV
Georgia: GPB
Germany: ARD, ADF
Guatemala: Divisional
Hong Kong: TVB
Honduras: Vica Television, Telesistema, Televisora Hondurena, 
Hungary: MTV
Ireland: RUV
Indonesia: ANTV, tvOne
Iran: IRIB
Ireland: RTE
Israel: IBA
Italian Peninsula: Sky TV
Jamaica: CVM Television 
Japan: Nippon Television, TBS, TV Asahi, TV Tokyo
Kazakhstan: Perviy Kalina Evraziya
Kenya: KBC 
Kosovo: RTK
Latvia: LTV
Liechtenstein: SRG SSR
Lithuania: LRT
Macedonia: MRT
Madagascar: MATV
Malaysia: Astro
Mali: ORTM
Malta: PBS
Mauritus: MBC
Mexico: Televisa, TV Azteca
Moldova: TeleRadio Moldova
Monaco: TF1
Mongolia: Emerge Media
Montenegro: RTCG
Mozambique: TVM
Myanmar: Sky Net
North Africa: beIN Sports


[Courtesy: FIFA official website]


Namibia: NBC
Netherlands: NOS
New Zealand: TVNZ, Sky Sport
Nicaragua: Televicentro, Ratensa
Niger: ORTN
Nigeria: Broadcasting Organization of Nigeria, 
Norway: NRK, TV2
North Korea and South Korea : SBS
Panama: Corporation Medcom, Televisora Nacional
Paraguay: SNT, TV Action, Telefuturo
Philippines: ANS CBN
Peru: Andina de Television
Poland: TVP
Portugal: RTP, Sports TV
Romania: TVR
Russia: Pervyi Kanal, VGTRK
Senegal: RTS
Serbia: RTS
Slovakia: RTVS
Slovenia: RTVSLO, 
South Africa: SABC, Super sport
Spain: Mediaset Espana, Gol Television
Suriname: STVS
Sweden: SVT, TV4
Switzerland: SRG SSR
Sport Togo: TVT
Taiwan: ELTA
Trinidad & Tobago: One Caribbean Media
Turkey: TRT
Uruguay: Monte Carlo TV, Sociedad Anonima Emisoras de Televisiony AnexosSociedad Televisual Larranaga, 
Ukraine: NTKU, Ukrayina, Football
United Kingdom: BBC and ITV
Venezuela: Meridiano Television
Vietnam: VTV
Zimbabwe: ZXV

Online streaming of FIFA world cup 2014 on official website and YouTube

People around the world can also watch the live action on online website. YouTube presents the live streaming of all the matches of this football FIFA 2014. The live action can be accesses at this link, https://www.youtube.com/FIFATV

Apart from the YouTube, the other sites are also presenting the live streaming of football matches. http://www.fifa.com/worldcup is the official broadcaster online. Sony six also delivers the live matches at its official website. Watch it on http://www.sonysix.com






Tuesday, June 24, 2014

VAO 2014 TNPSC Question Paper with Answer Key

Have you finished writing VAO exam 2014 conducted by TNPSC? Looking forward to get answer keys to check out your answers in the VAO 2014 exam? In this post, you will find useful information on answer keys of VAO 2014 TNPSC examination. This exam was conducted on 14th June 2014, Saturday. Next Group II TNPSC exam is nearing which is to be held on 29th June 2014 on Sunday. Here is the link to get answer key for VAO exams. Please find the link and use it for cross checking your answers.



VAO TNPSC 2014 Question Paper with Answer key:

General Knowledge answer keys can be accessed at: http://www.tnpsc.gov.in/anskeys/14_06_2014_vao_gs.pdf

General Tamil can accessed at http://www.indiastudychannel.com/question-papers/210296-TN-Village-Administrative-Officer-VAO-Exam-2014-General-Tamil-with-General-English.aspx

Thursday, June 19, 2014

Artificial Organs & Tissue Engineering :Sathyabama university,B.Tech,2013 question paper

  SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY

(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)

Course & Branch :B.Tech – BME Max. Marks:80

Title of the Paper : Artificial Organs & Tissue Engineering

Sub. Code :524605 Time : 3 Hours

Date :19/04/2013 Session :FN

         PART – A (10 x 2 = 20)

  Answer All the Questions

1. Define artifical organs

2. What are the important considerations of a graft?

3. Write short notes on mechanical heart valves.

4. Define regurgitation.

5. What are the types of transplants?

6. Write the biomechanical properties of bone.

7. What is tissue engineering?

8. Difference between biodegradable material and biomaterial.

9. What are stem cells? Give examples.

10. What are the cell types from pleuripotent stem cells?

PART – B (5 x 12 = 60)

                          Answer All the Questions

11. Explain in detail – types of tissue grafts.
                                     (or)
12. Discuss in detail about evaluation and rejection process of tissue graft.

13. Define oxygenator. Write in detail – types of oxygenators.
                                        (or)
14. Draw and explain the principle & working of artifical kidney.

15. Write an acoount of source and regeneration of bones.
                                    (or)
16. Explain in detail about artificial pancreas and liver.

17. Discuss in detail about bioreactor design and its application.
                                    (or)
18. Write in detail about fundamentals & application of biomaterial.

19. What are the invivo & invitro applications of stem cell?
                                   (or)
20. Give an account on tissue engineering of bone marrow.


Medical Pathology Sathyabama University B.Tech 2013 Question Paper

SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY

(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)

Course & Branch : B.Tech - BME

Title of the Paper : Medical Pathology

Max. Marks:80

Sub. Code : 524403 Time : 3 Hours

Date :10/04/2013 Session :FN

 PART - A (10 x 2 = 20)

 Answer ALL the Questions

1. Define the term Pathology.

2. Write about apoptosis.

3. What are adhesion molecules?

4. What is meant by chemotaxis?

5. Differentiate thrombosis from Embolus.

6. Define consecutive clot.

7. Name a few pulmonary diseases that affect human beings.

8. Write about any two disorders of the upper respiratory tract infection.

9. Define tumor.

10. What is metastasis?

PART – B (5 x 12 = 60)

Answer All the Questions

11. Define cell injury. What are the biochemical changes that occurs in reversible and irreversible cell injury.

Or

12. Define Necrosis. Explain the different types of necrosis in detail.

13. Define chemical mediators. Briefly classify and explain its role in Inflammation.

(or)

14. (a) Differentiate acute inflammation from chronic inflammation with example.

(b) Differentiate’Oxygen’dependent phagocytosis from ‘Oxygen’ independent phagocytosis.

15. Explain any two hemodynamic disorders in detail.

or

16. What is meant by Embolism? Explain its types and mechanism of formation in detail.

17. Discuss the pathological changes that takes place due to the onset of any three pulmonary diseases.

Or

18. (a) What are the basic considerations to be taken care of during kidney transplantation ?

(b) List a few causes of renal failure?

19. Write about the different types of tumours from the medical pathology view of a biomedical engineer.

Or

20. Bring out the significant features of Benign tumour and malignant tumour affecting humans.


Sunday, June 8, 2014

JNTU Hyderabad, B.E CSE Intellectual Property Rights 2013 Question Paper

On a search of old, model, previous and sample question papers of JNTU Hyderabad? We've constantly adding more question papers of all universities in India. In this post, you can find an useful old question paper for B.Tech CSE Intellectual Property Rights from Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad. This is last year 2013 question paper of JNTUH. The paper code is 09A50808. Go through the contents to get a copy of this question paper.

University: Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad
Paper code: 09A50808
Subject: Intellectual Property Rights
Year of Examination: 2013
Course:B.Tech Computer Science & Engineering
Time: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 75
Answer any five questions
All questions carry equal marks

1. Explain the types of intellectual property rights with illustrations. [15]

2. Explain the procedure to select and evaluate trademarks with a case study. [15]

3. Discuss the norms and standards laid down by the World Trade Organization in respect of TRIPs related to 'Law of Copyright'. [15]



4. Section-3 of the amended Patent Act, 2000 takes note of the dangers of patenting. Explain the dangers. What areas are excluded from the purview of Patent Law? [15]

5. Explain the significance of trade secrets in the industrial economy of India. [15]

6. Explain the role of I.P.R. in protection against unfair competition. [15]

7. Write short notes on
a) New developments in trade mark law
b) False advertising [15]

8. Explain the trading norms and functions of W.T.O. towards I.P.R. [15]

Animal Cell Culture & Animal Cell Biotechnology, B.Sc Biotech Barkatullah University 2009 Question Paper

Are you looking for old question paper of B.Sc Biotechnology Animal Cell Culture & Animal Cell Biotechnology from Barkatullah University ? Hereunder, we have presented an old question paper that belongs to 2009 year examination conducted by Barkatullah University. Collect the question paper contents from the following treatise.

Barkatullah University
Course: B.Sc Biotechnology
Subject: Animal Cell Culture & Animal Cell Biotechnology
Year of exam: 2009
Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks : 50

Q.1 Discuss the importance of growth factors of serum.
Or
Write notes on :
(1) Briefly explain the simulating natural conditions for growing animal cells.
(2) Surroundings of animal cells.



Q.2 Explain the commonly used animal cell lines, their origin and characteristics.
Or
Write notes on :
(1) Differentiate between primary and secondary cultures with examples.
(2) Stem cell culture and its application.

Q.3 Discuss the different methods of transfection in animal cells.
Or
Write notes on :
(1) Differentiation of cells
(2) Organ culture

Q.4 Explain with example the production of special secondary metabolites.
Or
Write notes on :
(1) T-plasminogen activator factor VIII.
(2) Over production of chosen proteins.

Q.5 Discuss the production of monoclonal antibodies.
Or
Write notes on :
(1) Interlukeins.
(2) Hepatitis B vaccine. 

Barkatullah University, Anatomy and Physiology, Diploma Medical Laboratory Technology 2011 Question Paper

Are you looking for old question paper of Barkatullah University? Here is a question paper entitled "Anatomy and Physiology" for third sessional examination. The question has been asked in the year 2011.

University: Barkatullah University
Exam: Third Sessional Exam
Course: Diploma Medical Laboratory Technology
Subject: Anatomy and Physiology
Year of exam: 2011
Time : 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Q.1. Anatomy of respiratory system. (25 marks)



Q.2. Physiology of Excretory system. (25 marks)

Q.3. Write short notes on :- (25 marks)

1. Mitosis
2. Fat soluble vitamins
3. Function of connective tissue
4. Function of muscles
5. Function of Autonomic nervous system.

Q.4. Draw labelled diagram (any five) :- (25 marks)

1. Normal histology of small intestine
2. Normal histology of salivary gland
3. Normal histology of spleen
4. Normal histology of testes
5. Normal histology of liver
6. Normal histology of kidney 

JE SE Mechanical Electrical RRB 2007 Solved Question Paper

Railway Recruitment Board JE SE Mechanical Electrical Previous Papers Download 

Are you preparing for Government Examination particularly RRB exams? Want to collect old previous model and latest RRB exam question paper with answer. In this post, you will find one of the old question paper for the post of JE SE Mechanical Electrical 2007 question paper with complete answers. Read on to collect the question paper contents.

Railway Recruitment Board
2007 JE SE Mechanical Electrical Solved Question Paper

1. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true?
(a) South-Central Railway - Secunderabad
(b) Central railway - Bhopal
(c) South Railway - Chennai
(d) North Railway - New Delhi
Answer: B

2. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started?
(a) From Calcutta to Delhi (b) From Mumbai to Thane
(c) From Mumbai to Surat (d) From Mumbai to Madras
Answer: B

3. When was the first train in Indian started?
(a) 1851 (b) 1852 (c) 1853 (d) 1854
Answer: C

4. In which Governor-General’s reign railway lines in India were established?
(a) Lord William Bentick (b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Kenning (d) Lord Dalhousie
Answer: D




5. A station where the rail lines end, is called
(a) junction station (b) way-side-station
(c) block station (d) terminal station
Answer: D

6. How much distance was traveled by first train of India?
(a) 33 km (b) 36 km (c) 34 km (d) 46 km
Answer: C

7. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines?
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth
Answer: D

RRB Mumbai Junior Engineer Electrical Mechanical
Previous Paper 2007

8. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)?
(a) 4300 Km (b) 3700 Km (c) 4290 km (d) 5298 km
Answer: B

9. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at
(a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Guwahati (c) Gorakhpur (d) New Delhi
Answer: C

10. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established?
(a) 15th Jan, 1958 (b) 15th Jan, 1955
(c) 2nd Jan, 1956 (d) 14th April, 1952
Answer: A

11.The zone with the minimum length is
(a) North-Eastern Railway
(b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway
(c) South-East Railway
(d) South-Central Railway
Answer: B

12. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated?
(a) Pune (b) Chennai (c) Nasik (d) Sikandrabad
Answer: A

13. How many training institutions of Railways are in India?
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six
Answer: C

14. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system?
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Forth
Answer: B

15. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas?
(a) Broad gauge (b) Meter gauge
(c) Narrow gauge (d) Special gauge
Answer: C

16. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is
(a) Calcutta (b) Maligaon (Guwahati)
(c) Chennai (d) Gorakhpur
Answer: B

17. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started?
(a) Mumbai (b) Delhi (c) Calcutta (d) Chennai
Answer: C

18. General Manger is responsible for
(a) Railway Board (b) Railway Ministry
(c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry
(d) None of these
Answer: A

19. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at
(a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Chennai
(c) Secundrabad (d) Mumbai (Central)
Answer: C

20. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at
(a) New Delhi (b) Guwahati (c) Gorakhpur (d) Mumbai (V.T)
Answer: A

21. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at
(a) Calcutta (b) Chennai (c) Delhi (d) Mumbai
Answer: B

22. In which institution the training of electric work is being given?
(a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering
(b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering
(c) Railway Staff College
(d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering
Answer: B

23. Who invented the railway engine?
(a) Charles Babbage (b) Isaac Newton
(c) James Watt (d) George Stephenson
Answer: D

24. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Institute situated?
(a) Nasik (b) Baroda (c) Jamalpur (d) Pune
Answer: C

25. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States?
(a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra (c) West Bengal (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: C


26. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station?
(a) Jammutavi (b) Amritsar (c) Pathancoat (d) Guwahat
Answer: A

27. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
Answer: B

28. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at
(a) Perambur (b) Varanasi (c) Kapurthala (d) Bangalore
Answer: B

29. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in
(a) 1974 (b) 1961 (c) 1971 (d) 1973
Answer: C

30. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the
following places?
(a) Kapurthala (b) Chittranjan (c) Perambur (d) Bangalore
Answer: C

31. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided in how many regions?
(a) 7(b) 9 (c) 8(d) 10
Answer: B

32. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project?
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Gujarat (d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: A

33. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in which year?
(a) 1988 (b) 1972 (c) 1982 (d) 1965
Answer: C

34. When was the Central Railway established?
(a) 5th Nov 1951 (b) 14th Nov 1951
(c) 14th April 1951 (d) 16th August, 1951
Answer: A

35. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones?
(a) Northern region (b) Western region

(c) North-Western region (d) Central Region
Answer: B

36. The largest national enterprise of India is
(a) Indian Railway (b) Indian Shipyard
(c) Airways (d) None of these
Answer: A

37. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittaranjan on
(a) November 1950 (b) October 1950
(c) September 1949 (d) October 1954
Answer: A

38. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?
(a) Chittranjan (b) Kapurthala (c) Bangalore (d) Perambur
Answer: C

39. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway?
(a) 1965 (b) 1963 (c) 1967 (d) 1965
Answer: D

40. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated?
(a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Mumbai (Church Gate)
(c) Gwalior (d) Gorakhpur
Answer: A

41. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started?
(a) 1982 (b) 1989 (c) 1984 (d) 1992
Answer: C

42. Shatabdi Express train was started in
(a) 1984 (b) 1988 (c) 1990 (d) 1985
Answer: B

43. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established?
(a) Jamshedpur (b) Patiala (c) Perambur (d) Varanasi
Answer: B

44. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways?
(a) Central Railway (b) Northern Railway (c) Eastern Railway (d) Western Railway
Answer: C

45. The railway station situated in the extreme south is
(a) Chennai (b) Cochin (c) Kanyakumari (d) Trivandrum
Answer: C

46. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called
(a) dock platform (b) passenger platform (c) island platform (d) goods platform
Answer: C

47. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done?
(a) 1952 (b) 1950 (c) 1951 (d) 1954
Answer: B

48. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established?
(a) 1954 (b) 1957 (c) 1959 (d) 1967
Answer: B

49. Railway Staff College is situated at
(a) Bangalore (b) Secundrabad (c) Chennai (d) Vadodara
Answer: D

50. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated?
(a) Lucknow (b) Bangalore (c) Pune (d) New Delhi
Answer: A

RRB Assistant Logo Pilot, General English 2012 Questions Solved Paper

Are you looking for Assistant Logo Pilot Previous and old years question papers? Here available is RRB Assistant Logo Pilot 2012 Question Papers in English. Read the complete question paper contents right from here to get success in you RRB exams.

Board Exam: RRB, Railway Recruitment Board of India
Question Paper: General English
Exam Held on: 04-03-2012)

Directions—(Q. 1 to 10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage, against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time there was a river. He was …(1)… unfriendly. The river lived alone, and refused to share his water with any fish, plant or animal. Thus his life went on, sadly and filled with loneliness, for many centuries. One day, a little girl with a fish bowl came to the bank of this river. In the bowl lived Scamp, her favourite little fish. The girl was about to …(2)… to another country, and she wouldn't be able to take Scamp with her. So she had decided to give Scamp his freedom. When Scamp …(3)… into the river, he immediately felt the river's loneliness. He tried talking to the river, but the river asked him to go away. Scamp was a very happy little fish, and he wasn't going to give up so …(4)…. He spoke to the river again, swam here and there, and finally he started jumping in and …(5)… of the water. The river felt tickled by all the jumping and splashing and …(6)… laughing.

After a while, this put the river in such a good mood that he started talking to Scamp. Almost without knowing it, by the end of that day, Scamp and the river and become very good friends. The river spent that night …(7)… about how much fun it was to have friends, and how much he had missed not having them. He asked himself why he had never had them, but he couldn't remember. The next morning, Scamp …(8)… the river with a few playful splashes and that was when the river remembered why he had decided to be such an unfriendly river. He remembered that he didn't like being tickled. He remembered perfectly how he had told everyone to scoot and that he wasn't going to …(9)… up with all that tickling. But, remembering how sad and lonely he had felt for so many years, the river realized that although it may sometimes be a bit inconvenient or uncomfortable, it was always …(10)… to have friends, than being lonely.

1. (A) so (B) total (C) very (D) extreme (E) full

Ans : (C)

2. (A) move (B) goes (C) visit (D) transferred (E) toured

Ans : (A)




3. (A) jump (B) fell (C) look (D) dives (E) slip

Ans : (B)

4. (A) long (B) sooner (C) nicely (D) easily (E) lazily

Ans : (D)

5. (A) in (B) beside (C) out (D) below (E) away

Ans : (C)

6. (A) stopped (B) started (C) felt (D) thought (E) heard

Ans : (B)

7. (A) forgetting (B) discuss (C) ignoring (D) thinking (E) gazing

Ans : (D)

8. (A) slept (B) woke (C) talked (D) irritate (E) splash

Ans : (C)

9. (A) live (B) stand (C) sit (D) light (E) put

Ans : (A)

10. (A) better (B) worse (C) sad (D) easy (E) happy

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11 to 15) Each sentence below has a blank, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

 11. Meeta ……… many gifts on her birthday.

(A) get (B) pick (C) received (D) seen (E) have

Ans : (C)

12. Please ……… the website for all the updates.

(A) browsed (B) check (C) surfing (D) think (E) hacked

Ans : (B)

13. The garden was …… of flowers of different kinds.

(A) full (B) grow (C) crowd (D) held (E) smell

Ans : (A)

14. They have ………… us to find another alternative.

(A) tell (B) spoken (C) ask (D) advised (E) help

Ans : (D)

15. Pratik was …… for a bus.

(A) thinking (B) waiting (C) telling (D) reaching (E) jumping

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16 to 25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is No Error the answer is 'E'. (Ignore errors of punctuation if any).

16. Meghalaya is

(A) / also one of (B) / the north-eastern states (C) / of our country. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (E)

17. Santosh has volunteered

(A) / to help in organising (B) / the Republic Day function (C) / about his locality. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (D)


18. The actor's friends

(A) / and family had (B) / decided to throw a (C) / surprise party for him. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (E)

19. Health experts since all

(A) / over the country were (B) / invited to attend the (C) / conference in the city. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (A)

20. They had

(A) / to mortgage their (B) / house in order to (C) / bear these expenses. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (E)

21. They had informed

(A) / us that their (B) / Chennai trip was (C) / cancel due to the strike. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (D)

22. All the students

(A) / had to attend for the (B) / industrial visit as (C) / it was compulsory. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (B)

23. The king was

(A) / amused by the (B) / jester's response (C) / to his question. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (D)

24. The boy was

(A) / accused of stealing (B) / money as well goods (C) / from the shop. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)

25. She was be asked to

(A) / write a report about (B) / the meeting that (C) / she attended yesterday. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E) i.e., 'All correct as your answer.'

26. She has presented

(A) her views (B) in a very unique (C) fashion. (D) All correct (E)

Ans : (E)

27. She misplaced

(A) the book before (B) she could (C) reed (D) it. All correct (E)

Ans : (D)

28. There were more (A) than five thousend (B) people (C) in the auditorium. (D) All correct (E)

Ans : (B)

29. He has won many awards (A) for his research (B) in the field (C) of ecnomics. (D) All correct (E)

Ans : (D)

30. Dadar is none (A) of the most (B) populated areas (C) in Mumbai city. (D) All correct (E)

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph then answer the questions given below them.

(1) "Why waste time sharpening your weapons when there's no danger in sight ?" said the fox, "You're being foolish".

(2) A wild boar was sharpening his tusks against a tree.

(3) "My tusks are my weapons," said the boar, "I am sharpening them so that I can defend myself from any danger."

(4) Frightened by the boar's sharpened tusks, he turned towards the fox instead and preyed on him.

(5) A fox passing by, asked him what he was doing.

(6) Just then a tiger appeared on the scene.

31. Which of the following should be the first sentence in the rearrangement ?

(A) 6 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 2

Ans : (E)

32. Which of the following should be the second sentence in the rearrangement ?

(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 4 (E) 1

Ans : (A)

33. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence in the rearrangement ?

(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 1

Ans : (E)

34. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence in the rearrangement ?

(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 1 (E) 5

Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following should be the last (sixth) sentence in the rearrangement ?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1 (E) 6

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36 to 50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words / phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. A man called Ramaya lived in a small village. Despite being a nice man, he did not have any friends. It was well known in the town that anyone unfortunate enough to look at him first thing in the morning would not be able to have food that day. That was why no one in the town liked encountering Ramaya in the morning, if they could help it. As soon as the king heard this rumour he decided to try it out himself.

He summoned Ramaya to the palace and ordered him to sleep in a room adjacent to his bedchamber. Ramaya had no choice but to follow the king's order. He feared that the rumour would come true. The next morning, the first thing the king did after waking up, was to take a look at Ramaya. When the king reached the breakfast table, he saw thatthe royal chef had forgotten to prepare his favourite dish. This
angered him and he refused to have breakfast. After finishing a few important duties in the court, the king went to the dining hall for lunch. The food arrived piping hot. The king had hardly picked up the
first morsel when he caught sight of a fly in the food. He left the table in disgust and when the food was prepared again for him, he found that he had lost his appetite. At the dinner table, an ignorant minister started eating before the king had started. This offended the king. He stormed out of the dining hall and refused to come back. As a result, the king could not eat anything at all that day. The enraged king was now convinced that Ramaya was really jinxed. He ordered that Ramaya be hanged. In those days the king's word was the law. The soldiers had no option but to take Ramaya to the gallows. While on their way to the gallows, they met the court jester. He heard the story from Ramaya. The jester felt that it was an unfair decision and that none of this was Ramaya's fault. He came up with a plan to save Ramaya from being hanged. He whispered something in Ramaya's ears. Ramaya nodded before being whisked away.

It was mandatory to grant one last wish to the person who was being hanged. When the soldiers asked Ramaya about his last wish, he asked them to convey a message to the king. He also requested that he be hanged only after hearing the king's response. "Tell the king that while it may be true that anyone who sees my face first thing in the morning does not get anything to eat that day, it's also true that if
anyone sees the king's face first thing in the morning, as I did, he has to lose his life. So who's the greater jinx - the king or I ?" said Ramaya.

On hearing the message, the king was stunned. He realised his foolishness and ordered his soldiers to stop the execution. He summoned Ramaya and offered him gifts. He also requested Ramaya not to say anything about the incident to the public. He was sure that the people of the village wouldn't take well to the idea of having a jinxed person for a ruler. Ramaya agreed. When the villagers saw Ramaya returning with the gifts, they assumed that the rumour was false and that the king had given the gifts to Ramaya as compensation. They were ashamed of their behaviour and swore that they would never
ignore Ramaya.

36. Why had the king summoned Ramaya ?

(A) He wanted to have Ramaya executed

(B) He wanted all the villagers to realize their mistake and be friends with Ramaya

(C) He wanted to test the court jester's intelligence

(D) He wanted to see Ramaya's face, the first thing every morning

(E) He wanted to verify whether the rumour about Ramaya was true or false

Ans : (E)

37. According to the rumour, what would happen if someone saw Ramaya's face, first thing in the morning ?

(A) That person would not get a chance to eat, the whole day (B) That person would be executed by the king

(C) That person would eat the whole day

(D) That person would receive gifts from the king

(E) That person would become an outcast in the village

Ans : (A)

38. Why did the king refuse to eat breakfast ?

(A) The king had seen Ramaya's face, first thing in the morning

(B) The royal chef had forgotten to cook the king's favourite dish

(C) The royal chef had forgotten to prepare Ramaya's favourite dish

(D) One of the ministers had insulted the king at the breakfast table

(E) The king was on a diet

Ans : (D)

39. What did the king do when he caught sight of a fly in the food during lunch ?

(A) He ignored it and finished the lunch

(B) He fired the chef and asked him to throw the food

(C) He simply left the dining hall in disgust

(D) He ordered his soldiers to kill Ramaya

(E) He asked his ministers to cook another meal

Ans : (C)

40. When was the king convinced that Ramaya was jinxed ?

(A) When he realised that he had not eaten the whole day after he had seen Ramaya's face the first thing in the morning

(B) When he realised that each time he saw Ramaya, he fell sick

(C) When he heard the rumour that anyone who saw Ramaya's face first thing in the morning would not get a chance to eat the whole day

(D) When he saw that the chef had not prepared his favourite dish on the day he had seen Ramaya's face the first thing in the morning

(E) When the soldiers went to him with Ramaya's final wish

Ans : (A)

41. Which of the following is true according to the given passage ?

(A) Ramaya had many friends in the village

(B) The king had dinner on the day he saw Ramaya's face first thing in the morning

(C) Ramaya told the villagers that the king was jinxed

(D) One of the ministers had started eating before the king during dinner

(E) None is true

Ans : (D)

42. Arrange the following incidents in a chronological order as they occurred in the passage.

(1) The court jester met Ramaya

(2) Ramaya received gifts from the king

(3) Ramaya slept at the palace

(4) The villagers realised their mistake

(A) 1324 (B) 3214 (C) 3241 (D) 3142 (E) 3124

Ans : (E)

43. What was Ramaya's last wish ?

(A) He wanted to have a meal with the king

(B) He wanted to talk to the court jester

(C) He wanted to pass on a message to the king

(D) He wanted to speak to a minister

(E) Not mentioned in the passage

Ans : (C)

44. What was the king's request to Ramaya ?

(A) That Ramaya must accept that he is unlucky

(B) That Ramaya must tell the villagers that the king is very kind

(C) That Ramaya must not tell the villagers that a minister had insulted the king

(D) That Ramaya must not tell the villagers about the incident

(E) That Ramaya must not tell anyone about the gifts he had received

Ans : (D)

45. Who helped save Ramaya from being hanged ?

(A) The court jester

(B) The king

(C) The soldiers

(D) The villagers

(E) The chef

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 46 to 48) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in the meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

46. Adjacent to

(A) Far away (B) Beside (C) Opposite to (D) Same as (E) Below

Ans : (B)

47. Caught sight of

(A) Searched for (B) Forgot about (C) Suddenly noticed (D) Held (E) Nabbed

Ans : (C)

48. Unfair

(A) Dark (B) Unhappy (C) Unaware (D) Unreasonable (E) Rational

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 49 and 50) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

49. Refused

(A) Unused (B) Remembered (C) Agreed (D) Invited (E) Declined

Ans : (B)

50. Ordered

(A) Requested (B) Unplanned (C) Punished (D) Silenced (E) Explained

Ans : (A)

Saturday, June 7, 2014

CS1352 - Principles of Compiler Design, Anna University, BE CSE 2009 Question Paper

Looking for old, model, previous years question papers of CS1352 - Principles of Compiler Design? Here provided is an old question paper of this paper for B.E CSE conducted in the year 2009. Read the contents of the "Principles of Compiler Design".

Anna University, Chennai
B.E/B.Tech. Degree Examination, May/June 2009
Sixth semester
Computer Science and Engineering
CS1352-PRINCIPLES OF COMPILER DESIGN
(Regulation 2004)
Time:Three hours
Maximum:100 marks
Answer All questions
Part A - (10 * 2 = 20 marks)

1. What are the issues to be considered in the design of lexical analyzer?

2. Define concrete and abstract syntax with example.

3. Derive the string and construct a syntax tree for the input string ceaedbe using the grammar S->SaA|A,A->AbB|B,B->cSd|e

4. List the factors to be considered for top-down parsing.

5. Why is it necessary to generate intermediate code instead of generating target program itself ?

6. Define back patching.



7. List the issues in code generation.

8. Write the steps for constructing leaders in basic blocks.

9. What are the issues in static allocation?

10. What is meant by copy-restor?

PART B - (5 * 16 = 80 Marks)

11. (a) (i) Explain the need for dividing the compilation process into various phases and explain its functions. (8)

(ii) Explain how abstract stack machine can be used as translators. (8)

(or)

(b) What is syntax directed translation? How it is used for translation of expressions? (16)

12. (a) Given the following grammar S->AS|b,A->SA|a Construct a SLR parsing table for the string baab (16)

(or)

(b) Consider the grammar E->E+T,T->T*F,F->(E)\id.Using predictive parsing the string id+id*id. (16)

13. (a) Explain in detail how three address code are generated and implemented.

(or)

(b) Explain the role of declaration statements in intermediate code generation.

14. (a) Design a simple code generator and explain with example.

(or)

(b) Write short notes on:

1: Peep hole optimization

2: Issues in code generation

15. (a) Explain with an example how basic blocks are optimized.

(or)

(b) Explain the storage allocation strategies used in run time environments.

CS1351 - Artificial Intelligence, Anna University BE CSE 2008 Question Paper

Are you looking for CS1351/Artificial Intelligence old question paper of Anna University, Chennai. Hereunder provided is such paper conducted in the year 2008 for B.E Computer Science and Engineering course. Read on to collect the contents of the question paper.

Anna University, Chennai-25,
B.E/B.Tech Degree Examination
Computer Science Engineering
CS1351 - Artificial Intelligence
Time: 3 hours
Maximum: 100 marks

PART -A ( 2 x 10 = 20)

1) What is the use of heuristic functions?

2) Define artificial intelligence.

3) How to improve the effectiveness of a search based problem solving technique?

4) What is a constraint satisfactions problem?



5) What is a unification algorithm?

6) How can you represent the resolution in predicate logic?

7) List out the advantages of nonmonotonic reasoning.

8) Differentiate between JTMS and LTMS

9) List out the important components of a script.

10) What are framesets and instances?

PART - B (16 x 5 = 80)

11. (a) (i) Give an example of a problem for which breath first search would work better than depth first search.

(ii). Explain the algorithm for steepest hill climbing.

OR

(b) Explain the following search strategies.

(i) Best first search

(ii) A* search.

12. (a) Explain Min Max search procedure

OR

(b). Describe alpha-beta pruning and give the other modifications to the minmax procedure to improve its performance.

13. (a) Illustrate the use of predicate logic to represent the knowledge with suitable example.

OR

(b) Consider the following sentences:

John likes all kinds of food.

Apples are food.

Chicken is food

Anything anyone eats and isn't killed alive.

sue eats everything bill eats

(i) Translate these sentences into formulas in predicate logic.

(ii) Prove that john likes peanuts using backward chaining

(iii) Covert the formulas of a part into clause form

(iv) Prove the tjohn likes peanuts using resolution.

14 (a) With an example explain the logics for nonmonotonic reasoning

OR

(b) Explain how Beyesian statistics provides reasoning under various kinds of uncertainty

15. (a) (i) Construct semantic net representations for the following:

pomepeian (Marcus), Blacksmith ( marcus)

Mary gave the green flowered vase to her favorite cousin.

(ii) Construct partitioned semantic net represtations for the following:

Every batter hit a ball

All the batters like the pitcher.

OR

(b) (i) Illustrate the learning from examples by induction with suitable examples.

Gas Dynamics and Space Propulsion Anna University B.E Mechanical Model Question Paper

Do you in need of model questions for the paper "Gas Dynamics and Space Propulsion"? Here is available the model question paper of this paper for Anna University, Chennai. This is beneficial for those who are doing their B.E Mechanical Engineering under Anna university and its affiliated colleges. Read the contents of model question paper now.



Anna University, Chennai
Model Question Paper
B.E.  Degree Examination
05th Semester
Mechanical Engineering
ME 333  -  GAS DYNAMICS AND SPACE PROPULSION
Time : 3 Hours                                                                                        
Max. Marks: 100
       
Answer All Questions
PART – A  ( 10  x 2 = 20 Marks )

1. Derive the relationship between static temperature and stagnation temperature.
2. Define Zone of action and Zone of silence.
3. What is choked flow?
4. Heat addition to a gas may cool the gas. Explain with proper h-s diagram.
5. Explain the difference between normal and oblique shocks.
6. Define strength of shock wave?
7. What is ram effect?
8. What is the difference between shaft propulsion and jet propulsion?
9. How are rockets classified?    
10. What is bi-propellant? Give examples.

PART – B  ( 5  x 16 = 80 Marks )

11.i)   Sketch the variation of area, velocity and pressure for isentropic flow through subsonic and supersonic nozzle.
    ii) Air enters an isentropic diffuser with a Mach number of 3.6 and is decelerated to a Mach number of 2. The diffuser passes a flow of 15 kg/s. The initial static pressure and temperature of the air are 1.05 bar and 40°C. Assuming Mach number = 1.4, calculate area, total pressure and total temperature at inlet and exit and static temperature and pressure at exit.

12.a)   Air is flowing through an insulated duct. The inlet Mach number is 0.25. The friction factor 4f = 0.01. The diameter of duct is 15 cm. i) What length of pipe would give a 10 % loss in stagnationressure? What is the Much Number at this section? ii) What is the % of loss in pressure from inlet to a section at which the Mach number is 0.8? iii) What is the maximum length to reach chocking condition?

OR

12. b) i)   Compare the flows through a constant area duct for isentropic and adiabatic conditions.
ii)   A constant area combustion chamber receives air at 77°C, 0.55 bar and 75 m/s.  If the air leaves the combustion chamber at a Mach number of 0.85, determine conditions of air and the amount of heat transferred.  Also find the change in entropy.
           
13. a) i)   Derive Prandtl Meyer relation.

ii)   A gas stream ahead of a normal shock has pressure, temperature and velocity of 0.2 bar, 20°C and 1000 m/s respectively. Determine the Mach number, pressure, temperature down stream of the shock and the entropy changes across the shock wave. Take γ= 1.3 and Cp = 0.95 kJ/ kgk.

OR

13. b)   A supersonic nozzle is provided with a constant diameter circular duct at its exit. The diameter of the dust is same as the nozzle exit diameter. Nozzle exit cross section is three times that of its throat. The entry conditions of the gas are  Po = 10 bar, To = 600K. Calculate the static pressure, Mach number and velocity of the gas in the duct,

             i)   When the nozzle operates at its design conditions.
            ii)   When a normal shock occurs at its exit and
            iii)       When a normal shock occurs at a section in a diverging part where the area ratio A/A* = 2.
           Assume γ = 1.4, R = 0.287 kJ/kgk.

14.a)   A simple turbojet unit operates with a turbine inlet temperature of 1050°C. The  following data refer to this unit when tested at ground level. Compressor pressure  ratio = 7.5; Process through the compressor and turbine is isentropic; Nozzle efficiency = 96%; Ambient pressure = 100 kPa; Ambient temperature = 27° C; Mass flow rate of air = 25 kg/s. Neglect mass of fuel for calculation of thrust          and neglect pressure losses. Calculate thrust velocity and Mach number of the jet at the exit of nozzle and SFC. Assume Cp and  γ for gases and air as same as 1.005 kJ/kgk and 1.4 respectively.

OR

14.b) i)   Explain clearly turbojet and turboprop system with suitable diagrams.

       ii)   Diameter of an aircraft propeller is 4.0m. The speed ratio is 0.8 at a flight speed of 450 kmph. If the ambient conditions of air at the flight altitude are T = 256 K  and p = 0.54 bar, determine Propulsive efficiency, Thrust and Thrust power.

OR

15. a)  i)   Explain with sketch a liquid propelled rocket engine. What are its merits compared to solid propelled system?

          ii)   Write briefly on ‘Rockets Performance’.  
  
OR

15. b) i)   Discuss Multi-staging in rockets. Why is it employed?

ii)   The effective jet exit velocity of a rocket is 2400 m/s, the forward flight velocity is 1200 m/s and propellant consumption is 72 kg/s. Calculate thrust, thrust power and propulsive efficiency.

Anna University 2006, CS339 Computer Networks B.E CSE Sixth Semester Question Paper

Do want to get old question papers of Anna University B.E CSE papers? Here is an university question paper titled "CS339 Computer Networks" for the Sixth Semester (VI, 06th) Examination. Collect the contents of this question paper from the following passages.


Anna University - 2006
B.E/B.Tech Degree Examination
VI Semester
B.E. Computer Science Engineering
Time: Three Hours
Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer All the Questions

PART – A (10 x 2 = 20 Marks)

1. Why network software is organized as a series of layer?

2. What are the two kinds of light sources used in fiber cables?

3. Reliability of CRC is better than that of simple parity and LRC. Justify this statement.

4. What is meant by bit stuffing?

5. Write short notes on virtual circuit organization of the subnet.

6. Differentiate between adaptive and non-adaptive routing algorithms.

7. What is meant by upward and downward multiplexing.

8. Mention some applications where UDP is preferred over TCP?

9. Mention the layer in which email gateway function. Also mention some of its applications

10. Define encryption

PART – B (5 x 16 = 80 Marks)

11.i) Compare OSI and TCP / IP reference models on form of their merits and demerits. (10)

ii) Differentiate between broadcast networks and point to point networks. (6)

12.a) i) Explain the CSMA/CD protocol with binary exponential back off algorithm used internet. (10)

ii) Assume that a network can cover a distance of 5000 meters and the RTT is 100 µ sec of the network operates at a speed of 20Mbps. What should be the minimum frame size to employ CSMA / CD? (6)

(OR)

12.b) i) Explain the sliding window protocol and compare its performance against the simple stop and wait protocol. (10)

ii) Given message is M(X) = X5 + X4+ X + 1 and the generator is G(X) = X4+X3+1 Compute CRC. (6)

13.a) i) Explain the distance vector routing algorithm. (8 )

ii) Find the shortest path from node A to node D in the following network using the Bell mark kord routing algorithm. (8)

(OR)

13.b) i) Given three IP addresses are 32.46.7.3, 200.132.110.35 and 140.75.8.92. Find their classes, network addresses, broadcast address and their subnet marks. (6)

ii) Explain the token breket algorithm and compare its performance against the leaky bueket algorithm (10)

14.a) i) Explain the Bres-way handshak protocol used to establish the connection in the transport layer. Also explain the protocol used to release the connection. (6)

ii) Explain the transport service access point and the various schemers used by the transport layer to find the TSAP at a server. (8 )

(OR)

14.b) i) Explain the various fields of TCP header. (8 )

ii) Write short notes about the pseudo header included in the TCP checkroom. (4)

iii) Draw the UDP header and explain its fields (4)

15.a) Explain the DNS in terms of name space, resource record and name server. (16)

(OR)

15.b) Explain the architecture of WWW as on client / server application (16)

Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) 2009 Solved Question Paper

Are you searching for RRB, India 2009 AJMER ASM Solved question paper? Read this post then to get question paper contents along with all answers. Answers are given below each question. Copy and paste the question papers to MS word to save and use them for your future RRB examinations. If your friend need this question paper, recommend our blog to visit and get benefited.

Exam Board: RRB AJMER ASM SOLVED PAPER
Exam Year: 2009

1. The Buland Darwaja is related to
(1) Shershah
(2) Babur
(3) Akbar
(4) Jehangir
Ans. (3)

2. The Military Games were held in Hyderabad from October 17, 2007 to October 27, 2007.Which country won the highest number of medals?
(1) China
(2) Russia
(3) India
(4) Japan
Ans. (2)

3. The Railways gets the maximum income from
(1) Goods freight
(2) Passenger’s fares
(3) Advertisement
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)

4. What is sound?
(1) Energy
(2) Heat
(3) Magnet
(4) Ray
Ans. (1)

5. The chief source of heat energy is
(1) Sun light
(2) Biogas
(3) Electricity
(4) Natural gas
Ans. (1)

6. The Aravalli hills are located in
(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Assam
(4) Jharkhand
Ans. (2)

7. A plant can be disease resistant due to
(1) Pesticides
(2) Virus
(3) Fungi
(4) Bacteria
Ans. (1)

8. Which of the following Chief Ministers served for the longest tenure?
(1) Lalu Prasad
(2) Jyoti Basu
(3) Ms. Mayawati
(4) M. Karunanidhi
Ans. (2)

9. Which of the following straits separates Europe from Africa?
(1) Berring
(2) Dobar
(3) Gibralter
(4) Mulucca
Ans. (3)



10. The UN Climate Change conference was organized in Bali from December 3, 2007 to December 14, 2007 for 12 days in which 1000 people participated .Bali is situated in
(1) Indonesia
(2) Malaysia
(3) Morocco
(4) China
Ans. (1)

11. The description of caste system is found in
(1) Rig Veda
(2) Sam Veda
(3) Yajurva Veda
(4) Atharva Veda
Ans. (1)

12. Who is called the Akbar of Kashmir?
(1) Janulabeddin
(2) Sikandar
(3) Queen Didda
(4) Emperor Sangram Singh
Ans. (1)

13. The Border Road Organization comes under
(1) Defense
(2) Urban Development
(3) Corporate sector
(4) Private sector
Ans. (1)

14. Which of the following corporations was started first by the Government of India?
(1) Damodar Valley Corporation
(2) National Thermal Power Corporation
(3) National Hydel Power Corporation
(4) All the above
Ans. (1)

15. Which of the following is not a part of three gems of the Buddhism?
(1) Buddha
(2) Sangha
(3) Dhamma
(4) Ahimsa
Ans. (4)

16. Who was the first Indian to reach Antarctica?
(1) Rakesh Sharma
(2) G.S. Sirohi
(3) B.K. Dutta
(4) K. Karuna Nautial
Ans. (2)

17. A saturated solution at S.T.P. is
(1) Colorless
(2) Green
(3) Red
(4) Red and green
Ans. (1)

18. The pure element in the following is
(1) Glass
(2) Diamond
(3) Lime
(4) Salt
Ans. (2)

19. What is gypsum?
(1) Lime
(2) Bleaching powder
(3) Blue vitriol
(4) Ammonium chloride powder
Ans. (3)

20. Bones of horses of Harappan civilization were found at
(1) Lothal
(2) Harappa
(3) Surkotada
(4) Mohanjodero
Ans. (3)

21. What is Ag-mark?
(1) Technique to increase agricultural productivity
(2) Green Revolution
(3) Test of purity in the production of vegetable oil etc.
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)

22. Who has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket?
(11) Muttiah Muralitharan
(2) Shane Warne
(3) Anil Kumble
(4) Shoaib Akhtar
Ans. (1)

23. In 1947, 532 princely states were annexed to India except three. Which of the following was not among the three princely states?
(1) Junagarha
(2) Bhavnagar
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Kashmir
Ans. (4)

24. Which of the following gases is used to prepare Ammonia gas?
(1) Nitrogen and oxygen
(2) Nitrogen and oxide
(3) Nitrogen and hydrogen
(4) Nitrogen and carbon
Ans. (3)

25. In which of the following states of India, per capita income is highest?
(1) Orissa
(2) Assam
(3) Manipur
(4) Kerala
Ans. (4)

26. By import of — the inflation has been caused in India?
(1) Wheat
(2) Rice
(3) Sugar
(4) Petroleum
Ans. (4)

27. The meeting of Commonwealth Nations was held in Uganda on November 25, 2007. Who was elected its General Secretary?
(1) Mahesh Sharma
(2) Kamlesh Sharma
(3) Bimalesh Sharma
(4) Kailash Sharma
Ans. (2)

28. In which country the Hindu temples were razed to the ground in
December, 2007?
(1) Indonesia
(2) Malaysia
(3) Mauritius
(4) Afghanistan
Ans. (2)

Directions (29 — 33) : Read the following passage carefully and then answer the following questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage by choosing the best answer to each question out of given four options.
On hearing the news of the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh, Udham Singh did not attend his school but took a train to Armritsar and visited the spot. There, he stood for several minutes in a trance, picked up the soil, rubbed it on his forehead and put some in a phial. He fasted that night. According to his family members he placed fresh flowers on the holy dust every morning, drawing inspiration from it. One early morning he went to the river Ravi and pledged that he would Colour its waters with the colour of his blood, to create what he called the freedom’s flood. With this aim in view in 1921, he first landed in Africa. From there he went to America to meet the Indian revolutionaries working for the liberation of the motherland.
In 1923, he landed in England. In 1928, he returned to India in response to an urgent call from Bhagat Singh. When he reached Lahore, he was detained for violation of the Arms Act. He was released after four years rigorous imprisonment. In 1935, he escaped to Germany by giving a slip to the police. From Berlin, he reached Paris and purchased a revolver. He kept it ready for action and managed to reach London again. Opportunity came on March 13, 1940 when Sir Michael O’ Dwyer was to speak at a seminar in the Caxton Hall. As Sir Michael turned to resume his seat after the speech. Udham Singh pulled out his revolver and fired at him, Sir Michael died without a shriek. Udham Singh was arrested and produced before the court on April 2, 1940. The court passed death sentence on him and he was hanged at Pentonville Prison, London on July 3, 1940.

29. Udham Singh went to America where he
(1) mobilized the Indian citizens for the liberation of the motherland
(2) collected sufficient funds to fight colonialism
(3) met fellow citizens working for the same cause
(4) went sight-seeing
Ans. (3)

30. Where did Udham Singh buy the weapon which was used for killing Sir Michael?
(1) Paris
(2) Lahore
(3) London
(4) Berlin
Ans. (1)

31. Udham Singh shot at Sir Michael O’Dwyer in
(1) Jallianwala Bagh
(2) Armritsar
(3) London
(4) Paris
Ans. (3)

32. When Udham Singh was arrest ed in Lahore, he was charged for
(1) instigating his countrymen against the Englishmen
(2) his links with anti-British forces
(3) concealing his identity and carrying on underground activities
(4) possessing unlicensed arms and ammunition
Ans. (4)

33. Udham Singh returned to India in 1928 mainly because he was:
(1) short of funds to meet his expenses
(2) to produce some arms from Lahore
(3) to escape from the British police
(4) called by a revolutionary in India
Ans. (4)

34. In the following question a word has been spelt in four different ways one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word:
(1) Assemblage
(2) Asemblage
(3) Assemmblage
(4) Accemblage
Ans. (1)

35. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives
The documents are available ? inspection.
(1) of
(2) about
(3) with
(4) for
Ans. (4)

36. In the following question, choose the Adjective.
(1) Preference
(2) Gifted
(3) Genius
(4) In vain
Ans. (2)

37. Write the synonym of the word ‘Consummate’.
(1) Novice
(2) Ambiguous
(3) Perfect
(4) Imperfect
Ans. (3)

38. Find out, which part of the following sentence has a grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
They have
(1)/held the championship
(2)/ since the past
(3)/ two years.
(4) 1 year
Ans. (3)

39. In the following question, a word has been spelt in four different ways, one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word.
(1) demmurage
(2) demurrage
(3) demarrage
(4) demurage
Ans. (2)

40. In the following question, an idiomatic expression and its four possible meanings are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and choose your correct answer from the given four choices:
Play one’s cards well
(1) A good gambler displaying skills
(2) A magician showing magic of cards
(3) Use means effectively
(4) A game of gamble
Ans. (3)

41. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one that can he substituted for .the given words/ phrase and mark it as your answer.
A cock and bull story
(1) An unbelievable gossip
(2) A children’s fable
(3) A quarrelsome dialogue
(4) A competition between un equal people
Ans. (1)

42. Choose the part of the following sentence containing error and mark it as your answer:
(1) The number of orders
(2) for that item have
(3) increased greatly; several of them
(4) have come from Egypt
Ans. (2)

43. Identify the part of the following sentence containing an error and choose it as your answer.
(1) In America
(2) Presidential elections
(3) is held every four year
(4) No error
Ans. (3)

44. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives:
‘Ram has annoyed his boss. He ? have to leave the job.
(1) might
(2) will
(3) ought to
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)

45. In the following question, three words having different meanings of a certain word are given. Select that word from the answer choices marked (1), (2), (3) and (4).
Witness, Observer; Onlooker
(1) spectator
(2) present
(3) biased
(4) careful
Ans. (1)

46. For the following word written in capital letters, four words are listed below as (1),
(2) (3) and (4). Out of these, choose the word nearest in meaning to it as your answer:
VINDICATE
(1) approve
(2) justify
(3) express
(4) exonerate
Ans. (2)

47. In the following sentence, the bold part contains an error. Answer choice (1) repeats the original, other three are 1ifferent. If you think that the original sentence displays the best way of wording the bold part, choose your answer (1): otherwise select the best alternative from the other three choices.
“Parents and teachers are be coming increasingly concerned aboutprotecting children and the drugs which are available to them, and several parent teacher organizations, dedicated to educating children about the dangers of drug addiction, have recently been formed.”
(1) protecting children and the drugs which are available to them
(2) protecting of children and the drugs which are available to them
(3) protecting children from the drugs available to them
(4) protecting children from the drugs availability to them
Ans. (3)

48. From the given four answer choices, select the answer that gives the clearest, most exact sentence, but do not change the meaning Of the bold part of original sentence.
Such people never have and never will be trusted.
(1) never have and never will be trusted
(2) never have and will be trust ed
(3) never have been trusted and never will be trusted
(4) never have and anyone trust them and never will have anyone
Ans. (3)

49. Which one of the following statements is untrue?
(1) The sea-floor is older than the land
(2) The first rocks were formed as a result of the cooling o. molten matter
(3) Sedimentary rocks are also called aqueous rocks because they were formed by the agency of water
(4) Stalactites and stalagmites are deposits of lime found in caves
Ans. (3)

50. The main hydro electric power potential of the Indus river system lies in India and not in Pakistan because:
(1) the need for hydro-electric power is greater in India than in Pakistan
(2) India has superior technology to develop hydro electric power
(3) India has a greater labour force to develop hydro electric power
(4) The mountain stages of these rivers lie in India
Ans. (4)

51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh
(b) Gram 2.Gujarat
(c) Black Pepper 3. West Bengal
(d) Pine apple 4. Kerala
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 2 1 3 4
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (1)

52. In the production of tidal energy the maximum potential exists at:
(1) Bhavnagar
(2) Digboi
(3) Cochin
(4) Ladakh
Ans. (1)

53. The National Highway system is the responsibility of
(1) State governments
(2) Central governments
(3) Central and State governments
(4) Local body governments
Ans. (3)

54. Supersonic jets cause pollution by thinning of
(1) Sulphur dioxide layer
(2) Carbon dioxide layer
(3) Ozone layer
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)

55. Which one of the following is commonly called Edible sponge mushroom’?
(1) Sargassum
(2) Morchella
(3) Agaricus
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)

56. Which of the following is not an essential function of the skin in the human body?
(1) protects the internal or of the body
(2) acts as a sensory organ
(3) regulates the temperature of the body
(4) gives shape to the body
Ans. (4)

57. The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called
(1) Inverter
(2) Rectifier
(3) Transmitter
(4) Transformer
Ans. (2)

58. Water is used in hot water bottles because:
(1) it is easily obtained in pure form
(2) it has high specific heat
(3) it is cheaper and not harmful
(4) it is easy to heat water
Ans. (2)

59. Mention the ray which appears to originate outside the earth.
(1) cosmic ray
(2) the ultra-violet ray
(3) the alpha ray
(4) the beta ray
Ans. (1)

60. A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than 75 cms from his eyes. What disease is he suffering from?
(1) Astigmatism
(2) Colour-blindness
(3) Myopia
(4) Hypermetropia
Ans. (4)

61. Oil rises up to wick in a lamp because
(1) oil is volatile
(2) oil is very light
(3) of the surface tension phenomenon
(4) of the diffusion of oil through the wick
Ans. (3)

62. Following Railway Training Institutes have been indicated with the cities where they are located. Find out which is wrongly matched.
(1) Railway Staff College  - Vadodara
(2) Indian Railway Institute of Civil Engineering  - Pune
(3) Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering  - Jamalpur
(4) Indian Railway Institute Signal and Tele Communication Engineering -  Mumbai
Ans. (4)

63. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given four options:
List -I List-II
(Zonal Railway) (Head Quarter)
(a) North Central Railway 1. Bilaspur
(b) South-East Central Railway 2. Allahabad
(c) West Central Railway 3. Jabalpur
(d) East Coast Railway 4. Bhubaneshwar
Code.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 3 4
(2) 1 2 3 4
(3) 2 3 4 1
(4) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (1)

64. In Indian Railways Network, approximately how many passenger service vehicles (passenger coaches) are working?
(1) 44,100
(2) 33.000
(3) 49,000
(4) 54,000
Ans. (2)

65. Who is the principal head of the Department of a Station Master in Zonal Railway Head Quarter Office?
(1) Chief Commercial Manager
(2) Chief Safety Officer
(3) Chief Personnel Officer
(4) Chief Operations Manager
Ans. (4)

66. Two new zones named North Western Railway and East Central Railway become functional/ operational from?
(1) October 1, 2002
(2) April 1, 2002
(3) April 1, 2003
(4) October 1, 2003
Ans. (1)

67. In one of the following State, though the Konkan Railway line does not pass through it, yet it has capital share in the K.R. Corporation. Name the State.
(1) Karnataka
(2) Goa
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Kerala
Ans. (3)

68. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice- President of India are decided by the
(1) High Court of a State
(2) Chief Election Commissioner
(3) Supreme Court of India
(4) President of India
Ans. (3)

69. Consider the following functionaries
1. Union Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Ministers
4. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence is
(1) 3, 4, 2, 1
(2) 4, 3, 1, 2
(3) 4, 3, 2, 1
(4) 3. 4, 1, 2
Ans. (3)

70. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that
(1) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated
(2) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away
(3) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article 368
(4) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended
Ans. (1)

71. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?
1. Finance Commission
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Council
4. National Development Council
5. Election Commission
6. University Grants Commission
(1) 1, 3 and 5
(2) l and 5
(3) 1, 2, 5 and 6
(4) 1, 3, 5 and 6
Ans. (2)

72. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with
(1) President of India
(2) Supreme Court of India
(3) Parliament of India
(4) National Development Council
Ans. (1)

73. Mohit said to Neelam, “Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.” How is Neelam related to the wife of Mohit?
(1) aunt
(2) mother-in-law
(3) sister
(4) cannot be determined
Ans. (1)

74. A tourist drives 10 km towards East and turns to right hand side and takes a drive of another 3 km. He then drives towards West (turning to his right) another 3 km. He then turns to his left and walks another 2 km. Afterwards, he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?
(1) 10 km—East
(2) 9 km— North
(3) 8 km— West
(4) 5 km—South
Ans. (4)

75. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide the ‘Strong’ and ‘Weak’ arguments and give answer out of four given options ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’ and ‘4’
Question:
Should all the professional colleges in India be encouraged to run their own courses without affiliation to any university?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities for those who seek professional training.
(II) No, this will dilute the quality of professional training as all such colleges may not be equipped to conduct such courses.
(1) Only argument I is strong
(2) Only argument II is strong
(3) Both I and II are strong
(4) Neither I nor II is strong
Ans. (2)

76. Statement: “Please do not wait for me; I may be late, start taking lunch as soon as the guests arrive.” — a message from a director of a company to his office managers.-
Assumptions:
I. Keeping guests waiting is not desirable.
II. Lunch may not be ready in time.
Consider the above statement and two assumptions to decide as to which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Choose the correct answer from the given options 1, 2, 3 and 4.
(1) Only assumption I is implicit
(2) Only assumption II is implicit
(3) Both I and II are implicit
(4) Neither I nor II is implicit
Ans. (1)

77. How many Asian countries are there in Common wealth?
(1) 49
(2) 51
(3) 54
(4) 57
Ans. (3)

78. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan’s which action; performed in favour of Indian independence, but was against the English men?
(1) Formation of Lal-Kurti sena
(2) Assassination of an Englishman
(3) Trade of red shirts
(4) Demand for Pakhtunistan
Ans. (1)

79. On selling an article for Rs. 270 there is a gain of 12.5%. What
is its cost price?
(1) Rs. 240
(2) Rs. 220
(3) Rs. 210
(4) Rs. 250
Ans. (1)

80. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1: 2: 3. The greatest angle will be
(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 90°
(4) 75°
Ans. (3)

81. The compound interest on Rs. 2500 at the rate of 6% p.a. after 2 years will be
(1) Rs. 309
(2) Rs. 318
(3) Rs. 320
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)

82. (999)2 – (998)22=?
(1) 1995
(2) 1998
(3) 1997
(4) 1992
Ans. (3)

83. A man covers a distance of 6 km at the rate 4 kmph and other 4 km at 3 kmph. His average speed is
(1) 9&13/7 kmph
(2) 3&9/17 kmph
(3) 5&9/17 kmph
(4) 3 & 5/9 kmph
Ans. (2)

84. The cost price of an article is Rs. 7840. To gain 7%, the article should be sold at
(1) Rs. 8388.80
(2) Rs. 8000
(3) Rs. 8383.80
(4) Rs. 8833.80
Ans. (1)

85. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 30 minutes respectively and a third pipe can empty the full tank in 20 minutes. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, the tank will be
(1) 10 minutes
(2) 8 minutes
(3) 7 minutes
(4) None of these
Ans. (4)

86.(4*4*4+3*3*3)/13 =
(1) 7
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Ans. (1)

87. (6.25) 4÷ (6.25)3 =?
(1) 6.25
(2) 6.025
(3) 6.0025
(4) 6.002
Ans. (1)

88. The ratio between the ages of Ram and Mohan is 4:5 and that between Mohan and Anil is 5:6. If sum of the ages of three be 90 years, how old is Mohan?
(1) 24 years
(2) 20 years
(3) 30 years
(4) 25 years
Ans. (3)

89. The per cent of 2 /45 is?
(1) 3&4/9 %
(2) 4&4/9 %
(3) 4 %
(4) 9 %
Ans. (2)

90. If a x=b;b y=c and cz =a , then xyz =?
(1) 1
(2) -1
(3) 2
(4) 2
Ans. (1)

91. Match the name of countries in List-I with years of beginning of railways in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List -I List—II
(Countries) (Year of beginning of railways)
(a) Britain 1. 1853
(b) America 2. 1829
(c) India 3. 1825
(d) France 4. 1830
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 4 1 3 2
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (3)

92. The length of Indian rails is
(1) More than 5000 km
(2) More than 5630 km
(3) More than 6000 km
(4) More than 6531 km
Ans. (4)

93. Match the items of List-I with List-II and select the-correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Largest Population) (States)
(a) Jains 1. Nagaland
(b) Buddhas 2. Rajasthan
(c) Christians 3. Maharashtra
(d) Muslims 4. Lakshadwip
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 2 3 1 4
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (2)

94. The capital of the king of Punjab Ranjit Singh was
(1) Lahore
(2) Ludhiana
(3) Mathura
(4) Sri Nagar
Ans. (1)

95. Photosynthesis does not take place in
(1) plants
(2) fungi
(3) bacteria
(4) virus
Ans. (4)

96. In nucleuic protein, Uceriotic chromosomes are alike in
(1) prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase -
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)

97. Which type of protein is found in virus?
(1) Lyco protein
(2) Secondary protein
(3) Primary protein
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)

98. In ionic solid, the velocity of electricity is
(1) fast
(2) weak
(3) less than solid
(4) less than gas
Ans. (1)

99. The largest phase in cell division is
(1) Liptotin
(2) Zagotin
(3) Pacotin
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)