OCET-2012 - Punjab University Question Paper M.Sc Zoology
Question Booklet Series : A Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Answer Sheet Serial No.
Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel Pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 2
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 3 [Turn over
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/A
1. Conjugation of Paramecium was elucidated by :
(A) Dellinger (B) Hyman
(C) Diller (D) Hertwig and Maupaus
2. Which of the following is not a larval stage of liver fluke ?
(A) Cercaria (B) Cysticercus
(C) Sporocyst (D) Miracidium
3. Placenta is found in which of the following animals :
(A) Ambystoma (B) Xenopus
(C) Duckbilled platypus (D) Equus
4. In which of the following trochophore larva is absent ?
(A) Brachiopoda (B) Mollusca
(C) Crustacea (D) Annelida
5. Permanent neoteny is exhibited by :
(A) Necturus (B) Bolitoglossa
(C) Ambystoma (D) Eleutherodactylus
6. Glycosylation of proteins takes place in :
(A) Mitochondria (B) Ribosomes
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) Lysosomes
7. In a heterozygote if both the alleles are expressed. They are called :
(A) Dominant (B) Recessive
(C) Co-dominant (D) Partially dominant
8. Non-allelic genes effecting same trait but one's expression is masked by second's
expression are called :
(A) Lethal genes (B) Supplementary genes
(C) Epistatic genes (D) Complementary genes
9. Which layer of egg contains hyaluronic acid ?
(A) Corona radiata (B) Plasma membrane
(C) Cortical layer (D) Zona pellucid
10. To which of the following categories the scorpion belongs :
(A) Crustacea (B) Arachnida
(C) Insecta (D) Brachiopoda
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 4
11. Which of the following is Hermaphrodite ?
(A) Aplysia (B) Pila
(C) Unio (D) Cardium
12. Drones of honey bee are :
(A) Fertile females (B) Sterile females
(C) Fertile males (D) Sterile males
13. Prokaryotic ribosomes contain :
(A) 16S, 23S and 5SrRNA (B) 18S, 28S, 5.8S and 5SrRNA
(C) 16S, 18S and 23SrRNA (D) 16S, 28S and 5SrRNA
14. Which of the following is the most productive aquatic ecosystems ?
(A) Coral reef ecosystem (B) Stream ecosystem
(C) Riverine ecosystem (D) Pond ecosystem
15. Which of the following air sacs are not paired in pigeon ?
(A) Cervical (B) Interclavical
(C) Thoracic (D) Abdominal
16. Retrogressive metamorphosis occurs in :
(A) Herdmania and frog (B) Botryllus and Necturus
(C) Frog and Necturus (D) Botryllus and Herdmania
17. The outer layer of placenta which is selectively permeable and hormone secreting is :
(A) Chorion (B) Amnion
(C) Allantois (D) Yolk sac
18. Study of population ecology is called :
(A) Synecology (B) Demecology
(C) Phytosociology (D) Ecosystem
19. Sleeping sickness is caused by :
(A) Trypanosoma gambiense (B) Leishmania donovani
(C) Trichomonas buccalis (D) Plasmodium vivax
20. Aphrodite is :
(A) Sea hare (B) Sea mouse
(C) Sea horse (D) Sea squirt
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 5 [Turn over
21. Deficiency of which of the following hormones causes the dwarfism and excess of the
same causes gigantism and acromegaly :
(A) Thyrotropin (B) Somatotropin
(C) Cortisone (D) Parathormone
22. Which of the following diseases is autoimmune disease ?
(A) Insulin dependent Diabetes Mellitus (B) Diabetes insipidus
(C) Parkinson's disease (D) Angina
23. Double trisomics have a genomic constitution of :
(A) 2n+2 (B) 2n+1
(C) 2n+1+1 (D) 2n–2
24. Which of the following is the sex linked abnormality ?
(A) Patau's syndrome (B) Edward's Syndrome
(C) Kleinfelter's syndrome (D) Cri-du-chat syndrome
25. Stinging cells are present in :
(A) Aurelia (B) Spongilla
(C) Euplectella (D) Hyalonema
26. Metameric segmentation is found in :
(A) Nematoda (B) Annelida
(C) Urochordata (D) Cephalopoda
27. A functional unit in a compound eye is termed as :
(A) Ocellus (B) Stigma
(C) Ommatidium (D) Eye spot
28. A restriction enzyme brings cleavage only at :
(A) the ends of a gene (B) the methyl group
(C) a particular sequence of nucleotide (D) the time of replication
29. Preparation of sperm before penetration of ovum is :
(A) Insemination (B) Spermiogenesis
(C) Capacitation (D) Spermatogenesis
30. Which of the following is a fish ?
(A) Cuttle fish (B) Jelly Fish
(C) Flat Fish (D) Silver Fish
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 6
31. Pernicious anaemia is caused due to deficiency of :
(A) Pyridoxine (B) Folic acid
(C) Niacin (D) Cyanocobalamine
32. Which gas contributes most to greenhouse effect ?
(A) Sulphur dioxide (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Nitrogen (D) Ozone
33. Diapedesis is :
(A) Bipedal walk
(B) Ability of WBC to pass through blood vessels
(C) Reproduction in Paramecium
(D) Doubling of chromosomes
34. Acetabulum is part of :
(A) Sternum (B) Skull
(C) Pelvic girdle (D) Pectoral girdle
35. Bt in Bt cotton stands for :
(A) Biotechnologically tailored (B) Bioenvironmentally tested
(C) Bacillus thuringiensis (D) Bacillus thermophillus
36. Gall bladder is absent in :
(A) Rana (B) Scoliodon
(C) Uromastix (D) Columba
37. Silk is produced by which stage of life cycle of silk moth :
(A) Larva (B) Adult
(C) Pupa (D) Egg
38. Structures with similar functions but having different origins are called :
(A) Analogous (B) Autologous
(C) Vestigial (D) Homologous
39. Which type of eggs show superficial cleavage ?
(A) Megalecithal (B) Microlecithal
(C) Cleidoic (D) Centrolecithal
40. The AIDS virus can be transmitted by :
(A) Hand shake (B) Using same toilet
(C) Sharing utensils with infected person (D) Using contaminated needles for injections
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 7 [Turn over
41. The technique of chromatography is based on the principle of :
(A) Adsorption (B) Absorption
(C) Partitioning (D) Partitioning and adsorption
42. Which of the following amino acids is the precursor for the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 ?
(A) Tryptophan (B) Lysine
(C) Tyrosine (D) Histidine
43. Abzymes are :
(A) Antibodies that have catalytic activities
(B) Zymogens
(C) Enzymes that hydrolyse antibodies
(D) Enzymes that are highly specific like antibodies
44. Which of the following bird species is endangered ?
(A) Hill myna (B) Great Indian Bustard
(C) Crow pheasant (D) Grey hornbill
45. During electrical stimulation-induced depolarization of neuron, voltage gated :
(A) Na+ channels will close (B) K+ channels will close
(C) Cl channels will open (D) Na+ channels will open
46. Which of the following is natural inducer of the lac operon in E-coli ?
(A) Allolactose (B) Galactose
(C) Lactose (D) IPTG
47. The region where RNA polymerase binds to promoter in prokaryotes is called :
(A) Pribnow box (B) Hogness box
(C) Homeobox (D) Shine Delgarno box
48. In which organelle is NADP+ the final electron acceptor ?
(A) Chloroplast only (B) Mitochondrion only
(C) Both chloroplast and mitochondria (D) Lysosomes
49. One of the major transmembrane protein in a tight junction is :
(A) Lectin (B) Claudin
(C) Adherin (D) Integrin
50. Which of the following is not a poisonous snake ?
(A) Rat Snake (B) Cobra
(C) Viper (D) Krait
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 8
51. XX-XO mechanism of sex determination occurs in :
(A) Humans (B) Birds
(C) Grasshopper (D) Drosophila
52. Bipinnaria is larval form of :
(A) Coelenterata (B) Polychaeta
(C) Echinodermata (D) Cestoda
53. Sternum is absent in :
(A) Mammals (B) Amphibians
(C) Fishes (D) Birds
54. Amphioxus belongs to :
(A) Hemichordata (B) Cephalochordata
(C) Urochordata (D) Cyclostomata
55. Which part of the brain detects temperature changes in blood ?
(A) Cerebellum (B) Cerebral hemispheres
(C) Medulla (D) Hypothalamus
56. In most of the ecosystems, the greatest amount of energy flows through the :
(A) Secondary consumers (B) Herbivores
(C) Decomposers (D) Carnivores
57. Triassic and Jurassic periods are included in :
(A) Paleozoic era (B) Mesozoic era
(C) Coenozoic era (D) Proterozoic era
58. The population of all the species in a given habitat is referred to as :
(A) Biosphere (B) Community
(C) Ecosphere (D) Ecosystem
59. Which one of the following is the termination codon ?
(A) GCG (B) CCC
(C) UUU (D) UAG
60. Which of the following is not characteristics of birds ?
(A) Air sacs attached to lungs (B) Hollow bones
(C) Ectothermic (D) Amniotic egg
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 9 [Turn over
61. Development of which of the following occurs first :
(A) Liver (B) Heart
(C) Notochord (D) Kidney
62. An animal that warms its body mainly by heat of cellular respiration is :
(A) a poikilotherm (B) an exotherm
(C) an ectotherm (D) an endotherm
63. Modern birds are more closely related to :
(A) Lizards (B) Mammals
(C) Crocodile (D) Turtles
64. The neurotransmitter between a motor neuron and a muscle cell is :
(A) Serotonin (B) Epinephrine
(C) Dopamine (D) Acetylcholine
65. The first true hominids in the fossil record have been placed in the genus ?
(A) Homo (B) Australopithecus
(C) Dryopithecus (D) Aegyptopithecus
66. Which of the following is a radially symmetrical animal ?
(A) Planarian (B) Rotifer
(C) Fluke (D) Sea anemone
67. The total collection of genes at one time in a unit of evolution is called as :
(A) Genotype (B) Demotype
(C) Multiple alleles (D) Gene pool
68. In aerobic cellular respiration most of the ATP is synthesized during :
(A) Glycolysis (B) Oxidation of pyruvic acid
(C) Krebs cycle (D) Electron transport
69. Genetic drift occurs when a few individuals of a species colonize an Island. This particular
phenomenon is known as :
(A) Bottle-neck effect (B) The founder effect
(C) Assortative mating (D) Random mating
70. The meiotic process by which homologues are paired during prophase l is called :
(A) Chiasma (B) Interkinesis
(C) Crossing over (D) Synapsis
71. Which enzyme catalyzes the synthesis of new strands of DNA molecule, by linking
nucleotide to the developing strand ?
(A) DNA ligase (B) DNA polymerase
(C) Single strand binding protein (D) Topoisomerase
72. The number of spiracles in cockroach is :
(A) Twelve (B) Fifteen
(C) Eight (D) Ten
73. The King crab Limulus is important because it is a :
(A) Missing link (B) Living fossil
(C) Connecting link (D) Extinct species
74. Cri-du-Chat syndrome is due to a :
(A) Duplication (B) Deletion
(C) Inversion (D) Translocation
75. The sting of worker honey bee is a modification of :
(A) Mandibles (B) Jaws
(C) Ovipositor (D) Maxillae
Question Booklet Series : A Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Answer Sheet Serial No.
Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel Pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 2
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 3 [Turn over
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/A
1. Conjugation of Paramecium was elucidated by :
(A) Dellinger (B) Hyman
(C) Diller (D) Hertwig and Maupaus
2. Which of the following is not a larval stage of liver fluke ?
(A) Cercaria (B) Cysticercus
(C) Sporocyst (D) Miracidium
3. Placenta is found in which of the following animals :
(A) Ambystoma (B) Xenopus
(C) Duckbilled platypus (D) Equus
4. In which of the following trochophore larva is absent ?
(A) Brachiopoda (B) Mollusca
(C) Crustacea (D) Annelida
5. Permanent neoteny is exhibited by :
(A) Necturus (B) Bolitoglossa
(C) Ambystoma (D) Eleutherodactylus
6. Glycosylation of proteins takes place in :
(A) Mitochondria (B) Ribosomes
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) Lysosomes
7. In a heterozygote if both the alleles are expressed. They are called :
(A) Dominant (B) Recessive
(C) Co-dominant (D) Partially dominant
8. Non-allelic genes effecting same trait but one's expression is masked by second's
expression are called :
(A) Lethal genes (B) Supplementary genes
(C) Epistatic genes (D) Complementary genes
9. Which layer of egg contains hyaluronic acid ?
(A) Corona radiata (B) Plasma membrane
(C) Cortical layer (D) Zona pellucid
10. To which of the following categories the scorpion belongs :
(A) Crustacea (B) Arachnida
(C) Insecta (D) Brachiopoda
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 4
11. Which of the following is Hermaphrodite ?
(A) Aplysia (B) Pila
(C) Unio (D) Cardium
12. Drones of honey bee are :
(A) Fertile females (B) Sterile females
(C) Fertile males (D) Sterile males
13. Prokaryotic ribosomes contain :
(A) 16S, 23S and 5SrRNA (B) 18S, 28S, 5.8S and 5SrRNA
(C) 16S, 18S and 23SrRNA (D) 16S, 28S and 5SrRNA
14. Which of the following is the most productive aquatic ecosystems ?
(A) Coral reef ecosystem (B) Stream ecosystem
(C) Riverine ecosystem (D) Pond ecosystem
15. Which of the following air sacs are not paired in pigeon ?
(A) Cervical (B) Interclavical
(C) Thoracic (D) Abdominal
16. Retrogressive metamorphosis occurs in :
(A) Herdmania and frog (B) Botryllus and Necturus
(C) Frog and Necturus (D) Botryllus and Herdmania
17. The outer layer of placenta which is selectively permeable and hormone secreting is :
(A) Chorion (B) Amnion
(C) Allantois (D) Yolk sac
18. Study of population ecology is called :
(A) Synecology (B) Demecology
(C) Phytosociology (D) Ecosystem
19. Sleeping sickness is caused by :
(A) Trypanosoma gambiense (B) Leishmania donovani
(C) Trichomonas buccalis (D) Plasmodium vivax
20. Aphrodite is :
(A) Sea hare (B) Sea mouse
(C) Sea horse (D) Sea squirt
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 5 [Turn over
21. Deficiency of which of the following hormones causes the dwarfism and excess of the
same causes gigantism and acromegaly :
(A) Thyrotropin (B) Somatotropin
(C) Cortisone (D) Parathormone
22. Which of the following diseases is autoimmune disease ?
(A) Insulin dependent Diabetes Mellitus (B) Diabetes insipidus
(C) Parkinson's disease (D) Angina
23. Double trisomics have a genomic constitution of :
(A) 2n+2 (B) 2n+1
(C) 2n+1+1 (D) 2n–2
24. Which of the following is the sex linked abnormality ?
(A) Patau's syndrome (B) Edward's Syndrome
(C) Kleinfelter's syndrome (D) Cri-du-chat syndrome
25. Stinging cells are present in :
(A) Aurelia (B) Spongilla
(C) Euplectella (D) Hyalonema
26. Metameric segmentation is found in :
(A) Nematoda (B) Annelida
(C) Urochordata (D) Cephalopoda
27. A functional unit in a compound eye is termed as :
(A) Ocellus (B) Stigma
(C) Ommatidium (D) Eye spot
28. A restriction enzyme brings cleavage only at :
(A) the ends of a gene (B) the methyl group
(C) a particular sequence of nucleotide (D) the time of replication
29. Preparation of sperm before penetration of ovum is :
(A) Insemination (B) Spermiogenesis
(C) Capacitation (D) Spermatogenesis
30. Which of the following is a fish ?
(A) Cuttle fish (B) Jelly Fish
(C) Flat Fish (D) Silver Fish
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 6
31. Pernicious anaemia is caused due to deficiency of :
(A) Pyridoxine (B) Folic acid
(C) Niacin (D) Cyanocobalamine
32. Which gas contributes most to greenhouse effect ?
(A) Sulphur dioxide (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Nitrogen (D) Ozone
33. Diapedesis is :
(A) Bipedal walk
(B) Ability of WBC to pass through blood vessels
(C) Reproduction in Paramecium
(D) Doubling of chromosomes
34. Acetabulum is part of :
(A) Sternum (B) Skull
(C) Pelvic girdle (D) Pectoral girdle
35. Bt in Bt cotton stands for :
(A) Biotechnologically tailored (B) Bioenvironmentally tested
(C) Bacillus thuringiensis (D) Bacillus thermophillus
36. Gall bladder is absent in :
(A) Rana (B) Scoliodon
(C) Uromastix (D) Columba
37. Silk is produced by which stage of life cycle of silk moth :
(A) Larva (B) Adult
(C) Pupa (D) Egg
38. Structures with similar functions but having different origins are called :
(A) Analogous (B) Autologous
(C) Vestigial (D) Homologous
39. Which type of eggs show superficial cleavage ?
(A) Megalecithal (B) Microlecithal
(C) Cleidoic (D) Centrolecithal
40. The AIDS virus can be transmitted by :
(A) Hand shake (B) Using same toilet
(C) Sharing utensils with infected person (D) Using contaminated needles for injections
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 7 [Turn over
41. The technique of chromatography is based on the principle of :
(A) Adsorption (B) Absorption
(C) Partitioning (D) Partitioning and adsorption
42. Which of the following amino acids is the precursor for the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 ?
(A) Tryptophan (B) Lysine
(C) Tyrosine (D) Histidine
43. Abzymes are :
(A) Antibodies that have catalytic activities
(B) Zymogens
(C) Enzymes that hydrolyse antibodies
(D) Enzymes that are highly specific like antibodies
44. Which of the following bird species is endangered ?
(A) Hill myna (B) Great Indian Bustard
(C) Crow pheasant (D) Grey hornbill
45. During electrical stimulation-induced depolarization of neuron, voltage gated :
(A) Na+ channels will close (B) K+ channels will close
(C) Cl channels will open (D) Na+ channels will open
46. Which of the following is natural inducer of the lac operon in E-coli ?
(A) Allolactose (B) Galactose
(C) Lactose (D) IPTG
47. The region where RNA polymerase binds to promoter in prokaryotes is called :
(A) Pribnow box (B) Hogness box
(C) Homeobox (D) Shine Delgarno box
48. In which organelle is NADP+ the final electron acceptor ?
(A) Chloroplast only (B) Mitochondrion only
(C) Both chloroplast and mitochondria (D) Lysosomes
49. One of the major transmembrane protein in a tight junction is :
(A) Lectin (B) Claudin
(C) Adherin (D) Integrin
50. Which of the following is not a poisonous snake ?
(A) Rat Snake (B) Cobra
(C) Viper (D) Krait
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 8
51. XX-XO mechanism of sex determination occurs in :
(A) Humans (B) Birds
(C) Grasshopper (D) Drosophila
52. Bipinnaria is larval form of :
(A) Coelenterata (B) Polychaeta
(C) Echinodermata (D) Cestoda
53. Sternum is absent in :
(A) Mammals (B) Amphibians
(C) Fishes (D) Birds
54. Amphioxus belongs to :
(A) Hemichordata (B) Cephalochordata
(C) Urochordata (D) Cyclostomata
55. Which part of the brain detects temperature changes in blood ?
(A) Cerebellum (B) Cerebral hemispheres
(C) Medulla (D) Hypothalamus
56. In most of the ecosystems, the greatest amount of energy flows through the :
(A) Secondary consumers (B) Herbivores
(C) Decomposers (D) Carnivores
57. Triassic and Jurassic periods are included in :
(A) Paleozoic era (B) Mesozoic era
(C) Coenozoic era (D) Proterozoic era
58. The population of all the species in a given habitat is referred to as :
(A) Biosphere (B) Community
(C) Ecosphere (D) Ecosystem
59. Which one of the following is the termination codon ?
(A) GCG (B) CCC
(C) UUU (D) UAG
60. Which of the following is not characteristics of birds ?
(A) Air sacs attached to lungs (B) Hollow bones
(C) Ectothermic (D) Amniotic egg
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A 9 [Turn over
61. Development of which of the following occurs first :
(A) Liver (B) Heart
(C) Notochord (D) Kidney
62. An animal that warms its body mainly by heat of cellular respiration is :
(A) a poikilotherm (B) an exotherm
(C) an ectotherm (D) an endotherm
63. Modern birds are more closely related to :
(A) Lizards (B) Mammals
(C) Crocodile (D) Turtles
64. The neurotransmitter between a motor neuron and a muscle cell is :
(A) Serotonin (B) Epinephrine
(C) Dopamine (D) Acetylcholine
65. The first true hominids in the fossil record have been placed in the genus ?
(A) Homo (B) Australopithecus
(C) Dryopithecus (D) Aegyptopithecus
66. Which of the following is a radially symmetrical animal ?
(A) Planarian (B) Rotifer
(C) Fluke (D) Sea anemone
67. The total collection of genes at one time in a unit of evolution is called as :
(A) Genotype (B) Demotype
(C) Multiple alleles (D) Gene pool
68. In aerobic cellular respiration most of the ATP is synthesized during :
(A) Glycolysis (B) Oxidation of pyruvic acid
(C) Krebs cycle (D) Electron transport
69. Genetic drift occurs when a few individuals of a species colonize an Island. This particular
phenomenon is known as :
(A) Bottle-neck effect (B) The founder effect
(C) Assortative mating (D) Random mating
70. The meiotic process by which homologues are paired during prophase l is called :
(A) Chiasma (B) Interkinesis
(C) Crossing over (D) Synapsis
71. Which enzyme catalyzes the synthesis of new strands of DNA molecule, by linking
nucleotide to the developing strand ?
(A) DNA ligase (B) DNA polymerase
(C) Single strand binding protein (D) Topoisomerase
72. The number of spiracles in cockroach is :
(A) Twelve (B) Fifteen
(C) Eight (D) Ten
73. The King crab Limulus is important because it is a :
(A) Missing link (B) Living fossil
(C) Connecting link (D) Extinct species
74. Cri-du-Chat syndrome is due to a :
(A) Duplication (B) Deletion
(C) Inversion (D) Translocation
75. The sting of worker honey bee is a modification of :
(A) Mandibles (B) Jaws
(C) Ovipositor (D) Maxillae
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