Questions Search

This website covers previous years question papers of various universities and colleges in India. Moreover, the information on admission to various courses from various universities/institutes/colleges are also available. Research paper questions are also updated from time to time. Also the latest teaching faculty plus teachers jobs, Government jobs, Banking Jobs, and other jobs are regularly updated to help jobless candidates. Admit cards of various recruitment of Govt organisation are updated. Search your terms using the sejavascript:void(0)arch box provided.

Follow by Email

Saturday, December 10, 2016

Punjab University OCET M.Sc Chemistry 2012 Question Paper

OCET-2012 - Punjab University Question Paper M.Sc Chemistry
Question Booklet Series : A          Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words
Answer Sheet Serial No.
Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Chemistry
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the  candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent / Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.


M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Chemistry/A
1. Cyclopentanone on reaction with isopropylamine would produce :
(A) An amide (B) An enamine
(C) An imine (D) Cyclopentene
2. Which of the following structural formula depicts Aspirin ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
3. Which of the following is not a reactive intermediate ?
(A) Allene (B) Benzyne
(C) Carbocation (D) Nitrene
4. Carbon atom having four different groups attached to it is called :
(A) Prochiral (B) Homochiral
(C) Achiral (D) Chiral
5. An 'E' olefin which is unsymmetrically disubstituted will :
(A) always be trans (B) always be cis
(C) be cis or trans (D) never be cis
6. Which of the following aromatic compounds is most reactive towards electrophilic
substitution reaction ?
(A) Benzaldehyde (B) Benzoic acid
(C) Acetophenone (D) Benzene
7. Which of the following alkenes can exist as E, Z isomers ?
(A) CH3CH2CH=CHCH3 (B) CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2
(C) CH3C(CH3)=CH•CH3 (D) CH3C(CH3)=CH2
8. Which molecule listed below has shortest C—C bond length ?
(A) C2H6 (B) C2H2
(C) Cl•CH2•CH2Cl (D) CH3CH2OH
O
OH
OMe
COOH
OAC
COOH
OCOCH3
COOH
O – COEt
M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A 4
9. Nitrobenzene can be prepared from benzene by :
(A) Nucleophilic addition (B) Electrophilic addition
(C) Nucleophilic substitution (D) Electrophilic substitution
10. An organic compound exhibits an infra-red band at 2245 cm–1 and is hydrolysed to an
organic acid by mineral acid. The original compound is :
(A) An ester (B) An amide
(C) A nitrile (D) An acid anhydride
11. Which of the following organic acids is most highly ionised in water ?
(A) CH3CH2COOH (B) (CH3)2CHCOOH
(C) (Cl)2CH CH2COOH (D) CH3C(Cl)2COOH
12. Oxidation of 1-nitronaphthalene gives :
(A) Phthalic acid (B) 3-Nitrophthalic acid
(C) m-Nitrobenzoic acid (D) p-Nitrobenzoic acid
13. Hofmann degradation of an amide with Br2 and an alkali gives a :
(A) Nitrile (B) Primary amine
(C) Secondary amine (D) Tertiary amine
14. Which of the following compounds on reaction with NH3 gives an organic compound which
in turn on heating with an alkali evolves ammonia ?
(A) C6H5CH2Cl (B) C3H7OH
(C) C6H5Br (D) C6H5COCl
15. Which of the following on alkaline hydrolysis does not give benzoic acid ?
(A) C6H5O•COCH3 (B) C6H5CONH2
(C) C6H5COOCH3 (D) C6H5OCOC6H5
16. Which of the compounds listed below will have highest boiling point ?
(A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 (B) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(C) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH (D) CH3CH2OCH2CH3
17. The typical reaction of alkyl halide is :
(A) Electrophilic substitution (B) Nucleophilic substitution
(C) Electrophilic addition (D) Nucleophilic addition
18. The gas which is liberated from ethanol on heating with excess H2SO4, on reaction with
bromine produces
(A) CHBr2•CHBr2 (B) CH3CH2Br
(C) CH2Br•CH2Br (D) C2H5OC2H5
M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A 5 [Turn over
19. SN2 reactions normally proceed with :
(A) Racemisation (B) Racemisation with inversion
(C) Retention of configuration (D) Inversion of configuration
20. Which of the following solvents is classified as protic solvent ?
(A) n-Hexane (B) Ethanol
(C) Acetone (D) Diethyl ether
21. Nitration of ethyl benzoate produces :
(A) Ethyl ortho-nitro benzoate (B) Ethyl para-nitro benzoate
(C) Ethyl meta-nitro benzoate (D) Ethyl ortho-and para-nitro benzoate
22. Oxidation of cyclohexene with hot acidified KMnO4 produces :
(A) A diacid (B) A diketone
(C) A dialdehyde (D) A keto aldehyde
23. The major of reaction of toluene with bromine in presence of bright sunlight is :
(A) ortho-bromotoluene (B) meta-bromotoluene
(C) para-bromotoluene (D) benzyl bromide
24. Which of the following compound is formed from CH3MgBr on its reaction with HCOOH ?
(A) CH3COOH (B) HCOOCH3
(C) CH4 (D) CH3COOCH3
25. The compounds I and II shown below are described as :
(A) Enantiomers (B) Diastereomers
(C) Geometrical isomers (D) Identicals
26. The rate constant for two parallel reactions were found to be 1.0×10– 2 dm3 mol–1 s–1 and
3.0 ×10– 2 dm3 mol–1 s–1. If the corresponding energies of activation of parallel reactions
are 60.0 kJ mol–1 and 70.0 kJ mol–1 respectively, the apparent overall energy of activation
is :
(A) 130.0 kJ mol–1 (B) 67.5 kJ mol–1
(C) 100.0 kJ mol–1 (D) 65.0 kJ mol–1
CH3
C2H5
Cl
H
C2H5
CH3
Cl
H
I II
M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A 6
27. Which of the following is an intensive property ?
(A) temperature (B) surface tension
(C) viscosity (D) all of these
28. During an adiabatic reversible expansion of an ideal gas :
(A) pressure increases (B) the value of changes
(C) internal energy of the system increases (D) temperature of the system decreases
29. Which of the following statements is always true for a system at equilibrium under
conditions of constant temperature and pressure ?
(A) S > 0 (B) G = 0
(C) dG = dw'max (D) G > 0
30. The concentration of H+ ion in neutral water is ______ .
(A) 1 × 10–7 mol/litre (B) – 7.0 mol/litre
(C) 7.0 mol/litre (D) 1/7 mol/litre
31. The conjugate acid of NH2
– is :
(A) NH3 (B) NH4OH
(C) NH4
+ (D) N2H4
32. Which of the following is not related to colloids ?
(A) Ultracentrifugation (B) Dialysis
(C) Brownian motion (D) Wavelength
33. Rate of diffusion of a gas is :
(A) Directly proportional to its density
(B) Directly proportional to its molecular weight
(C) Directly proportional to square root of its molecular weight
(D) Indirectly proportional to square root of its molecular weight
34. Faradays laws of electrolysis are related to :
(A) Atomic number of cation (B) Atomic number of anion
(C) Equivalent weight of electrolyte (D) Speed of cation
35. What is the degeneracy of the energy level with n = 6 in a hydrogenic atom or ion ?
(A) 25 (B) 16
(C) 36 (D) 9
M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A 7 [Turn over
36. How many nodes does a 4d orbital possess ?
(A) 3, of which 1 is an angular node and 2 are radial nodes
(B) 3, of which 2 are angular nodes and 1 a radial node
(C) 3, of which all are radial nodes
(D) 3, of which all are angular nodes
37. To which orbitals may an electron in a 2p orbital in a hydrogenic atom make allowed
spectroscopic transitions ?
(A) 1s and 3d (B) ns, np and nd
(C) ns and nd (D) nd and nf
38. Which of the following statements about the kinetics of the reaction
H2(g) + Br2(g) →2HBr(g) is definitely true ?
(A) The reaction is first order with respect to bromine, Br2
(B) The reaction is second order overall
(C) The presence of hydrogen bromide, HBr, inhibits the rate of the reaction
(D) It is not possible to determine anything about the kinetics of the reaction from the stoichiometry
39. What is the degeneracy of the rotational energy level with J = 4 for a heteronuclear
diatomic molecule ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 9
40. One molal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in :
(A) 1000 g of solvent (B) One litre of solvent
(C) One litre of solution (D) 22.4 litre of solution
41. A line in the Paschen series of the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen is observed at
a wavenumber of 7800 cm–1. Deduce the upper state principal quantum number for this
transition.
(A) 7 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 5
42. When a catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium, a decrease occurs in the :
(A) Activation energy (B) Heat of reaction
(C) Potential energy of reactants (D) Potential energy of products
43. On a pressure-temperature phase diagram, the conditions under which a one-component
system exists as two phases in equilibrium corresponds to :
(A) a point (B) a line
(C) an area (D) the entire diagram
M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A 8
44. A sample of unknown gas at STP has a density of 0.630 g per litre. What is gram molecular
mass of this gas ?
(A) 2.81 g (B) 14.1 g
(C) 22.4 g (D) 63 g
45. Determine the de Broglie wavelength of an electron with a kinetic energy of 1.00 eV :
(A) 1.23 nm (B) 28.7 pm
(C) 364 μm (D) 8.70 Å
46. Which of the following would be correct units for the rate constant of a reaction that is
second order overall ?
(A) s–1 (B) mol–1 dm3 s–1
(C) mol cm–3 s–1 (D) mol–2 dm6 s–1
47. The standard cell potential for the reaction
2NO + ½O2 + H2O →2HNO2
was measured to be +0.240 V. Calculate the standard reaction Gibbs energy.
(A) –11.6 kJ mol–1 (B) –23.2 kJ mol–1
(C) –46.3 kJ mol–1 (D) –96.5 kJ mol–1
48. Calculate the entropy change when 2.0 mol of a perfect gas A and 3.0 mol of a perfect
gas B mix spontaneously :
(A) +195 J K–1 (B) +28 J K–1
(C) –12 J K–1 (D) –8.34 kJ K–1
49. The energy released as heat when liquid propanone, CH3COCH3, is burned in a bomb
calorimeter at 298.15 K is 1788 kJ mol–1. Calculate the enthalpy of combustion of
propanone :
(A) +1790 kJ mol–1 (B) +1786 kJ mol–1
(C) –1790 kJ mol–1 (D) –1786 kJ mol–1
50. The vapour pressure of bromobenzene, C6H5Br, above an ideal-dilute aqueous solution
of molality 0.092 mol kg–1 is 23.6 kPa. Calculate the Henry's law constant of
bromobenzene :
(A) 256 kPa kg mol–1 (B) 2.17 kPa kg mol–1
(C) 461 Pa kg mol–1 (D) 390 Pa kg mol–1
51. Borazine has the formula :
(A) (BN) (B) B3N3H6
(C) B6H10 (D) B6H12
M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A 9 [Turn over
52. Indicator used in the titration of acidified KMnO4 with ferrous sulphate is :
(A) phenolphthalein (B) methyl orange
(C) starch (D) none of these
53. Which of the following oxo-acids of chlorine have chlorine in the lowest oxidation state ?
(A) HClO4 (B) HClO3
(C) HClO2 (D) HClO
54. The number of pentagonal and hexagonal faces in C60 fullerene are :
(A) 12,20 (B) 12,25
(C) 12,28 (D) 16,20
55. Which out of the following is correct order of size ?
(A) I > I – > I + (B) I > I + > I –
(C) I + > I – > I (D) I – > I > I +
56. Which of the following is most covalent ?
(A) NaF (B) MgO
(C) AIN (D) SiC
57. What type of hybridization is involved in XeF2 ?
(A) sp2 (B) sp
(C) sp3 d1 (D) sp3 d2
58. Which of the following has the highest boiling points ?
(A) water (B) hydrogen sulphide
(C) hydrogen selenide (D) hydrogen telluride
59. Which of the following coordination compounds is non-conducting ?
(A) CoCl3• 6NH3 (B) CoCl3• 5NH3
(C) CoCl3• 4NH3 (D) CoCl3• 3NH3
60. Which of the following is an organometallic compound ?
(A) C2H5ONa (B) (C2H5)4Pb
(C) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (D) CH3COONa
61. [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br constitute an example of :
(A) linkage isomerism (B) ionisation isomerism
(C) coordination isomerism (D) optical isomerism
62. The effective atomic number of an inert gas is not attained in case of the following :
(atomic no. of Cr = 24, Fe=26, Co = 27)
(A) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (B) [Fe(CO)5]
(C) [Fe(CN)6]4– (D) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
63. The element with symbol 'At.' belongs to which block of the periodic table ?
(A) s-block (B) p-block
(C) d-block (D) f-block
64. Precipitates of silver chloride dissolve in :
(A) Conc. HCl (B) Aqua-regia
(C) NH4OH (D) Water
65. The colour of mercury sulphide is :
(A) white (B) yellow
(C) black (D) green
66. Nickel is routinely determined gravimetrically by using the reagent :
(A) DMG (B) EDTA
(C) Pyridine (D) F
67. The hybridization involved in the formation of diborane is :
(A) sp2 (B) sp3
(C) dsp2 (D) dsp3
68. In acidic medium, KMnO4 reacts as follows :
2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 →K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 +3H2O + 5[O]
The equivalent weight to KMnO4 will be :
(A) 31.6 (B) 63.2
(C) 158.0 (D) 126.4
69. The designation of a subshell with n = 4 and l =3 is :
(A) 4s (B) 4p
(C) 4d (D) 4f
70. Mo and W belong to which group :
(A) Cu (B) Mn
(C) Fe (D) Cr
M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A 10
71. The expected spin only magnetic moment of Ti3+ ion is :
(A) 4.90 (B) 2.84
(C) 1.73 (D) 0
72. The coordination number of cerium in [Ce(NO3)6]2– is :
(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 12 (D) 4
73. Cu+ disproportionate into :
(A) Cu only (B) Cu2+ and Cu3+
(C) Cu2+ and Cu0 (D) Cu and Cu–
74. Which of the polyhalide ion is not known ?
(A) I3
– (B) F3

(C) Cl3
– (D) Br3

75. The coordination numbers of the cations and anions in CaF2 structure are :
(A) 6,6 (B) 8,4
(C) 4,4 (D) 4,8

No comments:

Post a Comment

Pen down your valuable important comments below